Proof of power rule of limit laws

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving the Power Rule of limit laws, specifically for the case where r and s are integers with no common factors and s ≠ 0. The proof involves utilizing the Sandwich Theorem and induction to establish that lim(f(x))^n = (lim(f(x)))^n. Additionally, the discussion addresses the assumption that lim(f^(1/m)(x)) exists, prompting further inquiry into the conditions necessary for this limit to hold true.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of limit laws in calculus
  • Familiarity with the Sandwich Theorem
  • Knowledge of mathematical induction
  • Basic concepts of real numbers and their properties
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the Sandwich Theorem in detail
  • Learn about mathematical induction techniques
  • Explore the properties of limits involving fractional powers
  • Review proofs related to the Power Rule in calculus
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Students and educators in calculus, particularly those focusing on limit laws and proofs, as well as anyone seeking to deepen their understanding of mathematical analysis.

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Homework Statement


Power Rule: If r and s are integers with no common factor and s=/=0, then
lim(f(x))r/s = Lr/s
x[tex]\rightarrow[/tex]c
provided that Lr/s is a real number. (If s is even, we assume that L>0)
How can I prove it?

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


I heard that the proof is related to The Sandwich Theorem
 
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From [itex]\lim_{x\rightarrow c} f(x)g(x)= \left(\lim_{x \rightarrow c}f(x)\right)\left(\lim_{x \rightarrow c}g(x)[/itex] you should be able to prove that [itex]\lim_{x\rightarrow c}f^2(x)= \left(\lim_{x\rightarrow c} f(x)\right)^2[/itex]. Then use induction to prove that [itex]\lim_{x\rightarrow c}f^n(x)= \lim_{x\rightarrow c}\left(f(x)\right)^n[/itex]. That's the easy part.

For [itex]\lim_{x\rightarrow c} f^{1/m}(x)[/itex], assuming that limit exists, define [itex]g(x)= f^{1/n}(x)[/itex] and look at [itex]lim_{x\rightarrow c}g^n(x)[/itex].
 
Thank you for answering me. But how can we assume that lim f^1/m(x) exists?
x->c
 

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