jeffreydk
- 133
- 0
I'm working out of Abbott's Understanding Analysis and I'm trying to show the following,
For an arbitrary function g :\mathbb{R}\longrightarrow \mathbb{R} it is always true that g(A\bigcap B) \subseteq g(A) \bigcap g(B) for all sets A, B \subseteq \mathbb{R}.
I'm confused on how to get going with this--any help or hints would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.
For an arbitrary function g :\mathbb{R}\longrightarrow \mathbb{R} it is always true that g(A\bigcap B) \subseteq g(A) \bigcap g(B) for all sets A, B \subseteq \mathbb{R}.
I'm confused on how to get going with this--any help or hints would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.