Proof: Permutations and Surjective Functions

schaefera
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Homework Statement


Let X and Y be finite nonempty sets, |X|=m, |Y|=n≤m. Let f(n, m) denote the number of partitions of X into n subsets. Prove that the number of surjective functions X→Y is n!*f(n,m).

Homework Equations


I know a function is onto if and only if every element of Y is mapped to by an element of X. That is, for all y in Y, there is an x in X such that f(x)=y. Clearly if f is a function and n≤m, a function from X to Y can be onto (but it doesn't have to be, for instance, all of X could map to the same Y).


The Attempt at a Solution


I tried by induction, but got lost moving from n=k to n=k+1, so I'm not sure if that works. I think that f(n, m) has something to do with the number of ways to permute the elements of X... but not sure. This is before the lecture on combinations, so I'm not sure if we need to use that method.

Thanks in advance!
 
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Could it have something to do with creating a function from a partitioned version of X to Y?
 
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schaefera said:
Could it have something to do with creating a function from a partitioned version of X to Y?

Sure it could. You split X into subsets, each one of which maps into a unique element of Y. Then given a split (of which there are f(n,m)) you figure out how many ways there are to assign each subset to an element of Y. I don't think induction is really necessary here. Just explain it in words.
 
There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...
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