Proof that fn converges uniformly

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving the uniform convergence of the function \( f_n(x) = \frac{x}{1+n^2x^2} \). The user successfully demonstrated that the function converges to 0 for each \( x \) and applied the definition of uniform convergence, specifically using the supremum \( M_n = \sup_{x \in I} |f(x) - f_n(x)| \). By differentiating \( f_n \) to find its maxima, the user established that \( M_n \to 0 \), confirming uniform convergence.

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Homework Statement



[itex]\frac{x}{1+n^2*x^2}[/itex] I must show if this converges uniformly or that it doesnt. So i must show that there is an N or that there isn't an N for which if n > N the inequality in the definition of uniform convergence holds for all x.

Homework Equations



http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uniform_convergence

The Attempt at a Solution


Using point convergence one can easily see that the function converges to 0 for each x. So this can be used to see if there is an N for which |[itex]\frac{x}{1+n^2*x^2}[/itex]|<[itex]\epsilon[/itex]
 
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It may be best to use the equivalent definition (given on the wikipedia page) that [itex]f_n(x) \to f(x)[/itex] uniformly on [itex]I[/itex] if and only if
[tex] M_n = \sup_{x \in I} |f(x) - f_n(x)|[/tex]
is such that [itex]M_n \to 0[/itex].
 
thank you, i solved it using that definition and by finding the maxima of fn by differentiation.
 

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