Ibix said:
Can it? Why does it start moving then? And how was it hovering in the first place?
Say it was orbiting at infinity, and it started moving because I triggered a giant rocket engine pushing it into the A-D system.
LURCH said:
Specifically, the idea that the BH is already radiating gravity waves before the experiment begins, because it is orbiting something. OP, correct me if I’m wrong, but I think this is not the situation you are trying to describe.
Indeed, I assume the original system is free of gravitational waves (D being of negligible mass).
LURCH said:
You mean to say that the BH emits a single gravitational wave when it changes course, right? And that change in gravition causes the orbiting body to change its orbit?
Yes, that was what I was trying to ask (though not sure if it would be a single wave or not).
LURCH said:
My tentative answer is that it would take only five minutes for the orbiter to be effected, because he effect is being caused by a change to the space at, or just outside of, the EH, and NOT by any change of conditions inside the EH. Would that be correct? And does it help you answer your original question,
@Lord Crc ?
I'll have to chew on that one.
A.T. said:
I don't understand why you describe the effect on D as coming via A only. If B affects A then it also affects D, which will move according to the space-time geometry resulting from the A & B combined.
Of course B will perturb D as well, but I was focusing on what happens to D due to the acceleration of A.
Vanadium 50 said:
Is it about gravitational radiation or the gravitational force?
It's about
changes to the gravitational field, and how these changes are propagated.
stevendaryl said:
I think his confusion is that he has the intuition that gravitational force between two objects is due to gravitational waves propagating from one to the other. Black holes contradict this intuition.
AFAIK, a test particle orbiting a mass at rest (relative to the test particle) does so due to the static gravitational field, no waves involved. This I get, I think. When the mass is accelerated, the gravitational field changes. AFAIK the acceleration causes the mass to emit gravitational waves. When the acceleration stops the field is static again. Assuming the acceleration is slight enough then the test particle should still orbit the mass, though, I assume, the orbit would be perturbed.
I had assumed the perturbation of the orbit of the test particle, causing it to orbit in the new, static field, was due to the gravitational wave emitted by the mass when it was accelerated, but I got doubts about this when I was told gravitational waves do not escape a black hole.
My apparently confusing three-body problem was just the first thing that popped into mind as I contemplated this.