Mathechyst
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I hate it when a fact is so obvious that it isn't obvious how to prove it. Like showing that a subset of a finite set is finite. So ... here goes:
A probability measure P on a \sigma-field \mathcal{F} of subsets of a set \Omega is a function from \mathcal{F} to the unit interval [0,1] such that P(\Omega)=1 and
<br /> P\left(\bigcup_{m=1}^{\infty}A_m\right)=\sum_{m=1}^{\infty}P\left(A_m\right)<br />
for each pairwise disjoint sequence (A_m:m=1,2,3,\ldots) of members of \mathcal{F}. Because P satisfies this summation condition it is said to be countably additive.
The problem is to show that P is finitely additive, that is:
<br /> P\left(\bigcup_{m=1}^{n}A_m\right)=\sum_{m=1}^{n}P\left(A_m\right)<br />
for each pairwise disjoint finite sequence (A_1,\ldots,A_n) of members of \mathcal{F}.
Anyone have any hints to toss my way? Thanks.
Doug
A probability measure P on a \sigma-field \mathcal{F} of subsets of a set \Omega is a function from \mathcal{F} to the unit interval [0,1] such that P(\Omega)=1 and
<br /> P\left(\bigcup_{m=1}^{\infty}A_m\right)=\sum_{m=1}^{\infty}P\left(A_m\right)<br />
for each pairwise disjoint sequence (A_m:m=1,2,3,\ldots) of members of \mathcal{F}. Because P satisfies this summation condition it is said to be countably additive.
The problem is to show that P is finitely additive, that is:
<br /> P\left(\bigcup_{m=1}^{n}A_m\right)=\sum_{m=1}^{n}P\left(A_m\right)<br />
for each pairwise disjoint finite sequence (A_1,\ldots,A_n) of members of \mathcal{F}.
Anyone have any hints to toss my way? Thanks.
Doug