Prove application is a contraction

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves proving that a specific application defined on the space of continuous functions is a contraction. The application is given by an integral involving the cosine of two functions over the interval [0,1].

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the need to establish a relationship between the integral of the difference of cosine functions and the difference of the original functions. There is an attempt to utilize properties of the cosine function and inequalities to derive the necessary conditions for contraction.

Discussion Status

Some participants have offered guidance on applying inequalities and properties of trigonometric functions to approach the problem. There is an acknowledgment of the need for absolute values in the integral, and multiple interpretations of the steps involved are being explored.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the constraints of the problem, including the requirement to prove the contraction condition for all functions in the specified domain. There is a mention of the original poster's uncertainty regarding the application of certain mathematical properties.

burritoloco
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Homework Statement


We have the application h: (C[0,1], R) --> (C[0,1], R), defined by
h(f(x)) = \[\int_0^x cos(f(t))/2\, dt \]

Prove that h is a contraction.


Homework Equations


Need to prove there exists k, 0<k<1 s.t.

sup_(x in [0,1]) \left|\int_0^x (cos(f(t)) - cos(g(t)))/2\, dt \right|\]
<= K sup_(x in [0,1]) |f(x) - g(x)|

for all f, g in domain.

The Attempt at a Solution


I tried saying that the cosine function is smaller or equal to 1, but the LHS became smaller or equal to 1, in which case I can't derive the RHS relationship. Not sure what to do now...
Thanks for your help! (sorry about my latex code)
 
Last edited:
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btw there should be absolute symbols outside the integral
 
Hi burritoloco!

A personal question: do you speak French? It's just a guess :smile:

I guess you already did the following step?

\int_0^x{(\cos(f(t))-\cos(g(t)))/2dt}\leq x|(\cos(f(t))-\cos(g(t)))/2|

Now, what happens if you apply the sum-to-product formulas? (or Simpson formula)
 
Hello and thanks for your help! I don't speak french, but I do speak spanish :) However my prof is french, very good prof.

Using that inequality (which I had forgotten :P) then using the sum-to-product formulas, and finally using |sin x| <= |x|, I got LHS <= |f(x) - g(x)|/2 as needed.

Thanks again :).
 

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