Prove/Disprove: Inverse Function g(x)=x-\frac{1}{x},x>0

AI Thread Summary
The function g(x) = x - 1/x for x > 0 is being analyzed for its one-to-one nature and inverse. A tutor suggested it is one-to-one, but the user found two solutions for g^-1(x), raising questions about potential mistakes in their reasoning. The user derived the inverse function, indicating that it simplifies to (x + √(x^2 + 4))/2. The discussion also touches on the relationship between the domain of a function and the range of its inverse. The analysis concludes that g(x) is indeed one-to-one, confirming the tutor's assertion.
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Homework Statement



Prove/Disprove following function being one-to-one.If yes,find its inverse.

g(x)=x-\frac{1}{x},x>0

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution


My tutor said that it is one-to-one,but I found that the are two solutions for g-1(x).
Are there any mistakes?
g(x)=x-\frac{1}{x},x>0
x=g-1(x)-\frac{1}{g^{-1}(x)}
[g-1(x)]2-xg-1(x)-1=0
g-1(x)=(x\pm\sqrt{x^2-4(1)(-1)})/2
THANKS
 
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x>0
so
$$\frac{x\pm\sqrt{x^2+4}}{2}$$
reduces to
$$\frac{x+\sqrt{x^2+4}}{2}$$
keep in mind f is increasing that is
$$\mathrm{f}(x+h)-\mathrm{f}(x)=h \left( 1+\frac{1}{x(x+h)}\right)>0$$
so
f(x+h)=f(x)
implies x=x+h
 
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I fixed the broken LaTeX near the bottom of post #1. It didn't render correctly because tags were mixed in some itex script.
 
haha1234 said:

Homework Statement



Prove/Disprove following function being one-to-one.If yes,find its inverse.

g(x)=x-\frac{1}{x},x>0

Homework Equations



The Attempt at a Solution


My tutor said that it is one-to-one,but I found that the are two solutions for g-1(x).
Are there any mistakes?
g(x)=x-\frac{1}{x},x>0
x=g-1(x)-\frac{1}{g^{-1}(x)}
[g-1(x)]2-xg-1(x)-1=0
g-1(x)=(x\pm\sqrt{x^2-4(1)(-1)})/2
THANKS
How are the domain of a function and the range of the inverse of that function related ?
 
I tried to combine those 2 formulas but it didn't work. I tried using another case where there are 2 red balls and 2 blue balls only so when combining the formula I got ##\frac{(4-1)!}{2!2!}=\frac{3}{2}## which does not make sense. Is there any formula to calculate cyclic permutation of identical objects or I have to do it by listing all the possibilities? Thanks
Since ##px^9+q## is the factor, then ##x^9=\frac{-q}{p}## will be one of the roots. Let ##f(x)=27x^{18}+bx^9+70##, then: $$27\left(\frac{-q}{p}\right)^2+b\left(\frac{-q}{p}\right)+70=0$$ $$b=27 \frac{q}{p}+70 \frac{p}{q}$$ $$b=\frac{27q^2+70p^2}{pq}$$ From this expression, it looks like there is no greatest value of ##b## because increasing the value of ##p## and ##q## will also increase the value of ##b##. How to find the greatest value of ##b##? Thanks
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