Prove f(P) = 0 for Any Point P in the Plane | Putnam A1 Question Help

  • Thread starter Thread starter john562
  • Start date Start date
john562
Messages
8
Reaction score
0
Question:
Let f be a real-valued function on the plane such that
for every square ABCD in the plane, f(A) + f(B) +
f(C) + f(D) = 0. Does it follow that f(P ) = 0 for all
points P in the plane?

Answer:
Yes, it does follow. Let P be any point in the plane. Let
ABCD be any square with center P . Let E; F; G; H
be the midpoints of the segments AB; BC; CD; DA,
respectively. The function f must satisfy the equations
0 = f(A) + f(B) + f(C) + f(D)
0 = f(E) + f(F ) + f(G) + f(H)
0 = f(A) + f(E) + f(P ) + f(H)
0 = f(B) + f(F ) + f(P ) + f(E)
0 = f(C) + f(G) + f(P ) + f(F )
0 = f(D) + f(H) + f(P ) + f(G):
If we add the last four equations, then subtract the first
equation and twice the second equation, we obtain 0 =
4f(P ), whence f(P ) = 0.

Comments:
I don't understand why
0 = f(A) + f(E) + f(P ) + f(H)
0 = f(B) + f(F ) + f(P ) + f(E)
0 = f(C) + f(G) + f(P ) + f(F )
0 = f(D) + f(H) + f(P ) + f(G)?
 
Mathematics news on Phys.org
Those are smaller squares within the larger square ABCD. To be specific, they are the four quarters of ABCD
 
I don't understand how adding them equals zero.
 
what is this? like the easiest putnam problem ever?
 
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. In Dirac’s Principles of Quantum Mechanics published in 1930 he introduced a “convenient notation” he referred to as a “delta function” which he treated as a continuum analog to the discrete Kronecker delta. The Kronecker delta is simply the indexed components of the identity operator in matrix algebra Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/what-exactly-is-diracs-delta-function/ by...
Fermat's Last Theorem has long been one of the most famous mathematical problems, and is now one of the most famous theorems. It simply states that the equation $$ a^n+b^n=c^n $$ has no solutions with positive integers if ##n>2.## It was named after Pierre de Fermat (1607-1665). The problem itself stems from the book Arithmetica by Diophantus of Alexandria. It gained popularity because Fermat noted in his copy "Cubum autem in duos cubos, aut quadratoquadratum in duos quadratoquadratos, et...
I'm interested to know whether the equation $$1 = 2 - \frac{1}{2 - \frac{1}{2 - \cdots}}$$ is true or not. It can be shown easily that if the continued fraction converges, it cannot converge to anything else than 1. It seems that if the continued fraction converges, the convergence is very slow. The apparent slowness of the convergence makes it difficult to estimate the presence of true convergence numerically. At the moment I don't know whether this converges or not.
Back
Top