Prove Function is Constant on [a,b]

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves proving that a continuous function \( f: [a,b] \to \mathbb{Q} \) is constant on the interval \([a,b]\). The discussion centers around the implications of continuity and the properties of rational and irrational numbers.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss a proof by contradiction, questioning the assumption that the function can take on non-constant values. There is mention of the intermediate value theorem and its relevance to the continuity of the function.

Discussion Status

The conversation is ongoing, with participants exploring different approaches to the proof. Some guidance has been offered regarding the use of the intermediate value theorem, although there is uncertainty about its applicability due to the lack of differentiability. No consensus has been reached yet.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the function is defined from an interval to the rational numbers, which raises questions about the implications of continuity in this context. There is also a mention of the potential confusion between the mean value theorem and the intermediate value theorem.

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Homework Statement



for function f:[a,b]--> Q is continuous on [a,b],
prove that f is constant on [a,b]


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



proof by contradiction,
suppose there is a k, such that a<k<b,
since f is continuous on [a,b], there must be a j, such that f(k)=j.

Since on any fixed interval there is an uncountable number of irrational numbers, then there must be a k, such that f(k) = j and j is not a rational number.

therefore is f:[a,b] --> Q is continuous, f must be constant on [a,b]



I was told that my suggestion is "plausible" but not a proof. Any help? thanks
 
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A contradiction proof sounds like the right way to start.

So assume: f:[a,b]--> Q is continuous on [a,b] and that that f is not constant on [a,b].

So there exists c,d in [a,b] such that f(c) != f(d). (WLOG, f(c)<f(d)). Between any two rational numbers there exists an irrational number, so there exists e such that f(c) < e < f(d). Using the intermediate value theorem, what do we know?

Just realized, do you "know" intermediate value theorem yet? If not you might have to take another approach.
 
Last edited:
The mean value theorem won't help. It isn't given that the function is differentiable.
 
Stephen Tashi said:
The mean value theorem won't help. It isn't given that the function is differentiable.

Yeah, I fixed it. Was getting them confused.
 

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