Prove or disprove involving periodic derivatives and functions

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SUMMARY

A function f(x) with a periodic derivative, defined by the condition f'(x + p) = f'(x) for some real value p, is not necessarily periodic itself. The discussion highlights that while the derivatives of trigonometric functions such as sec(x), csc(x), and cot(x) are periodic, these functions themselves may not be. A counterexample is required to demonstrate that a function can have a periodic derivative without being periodic. The hint provided suggests analyzing the function g(x) = f(x + p) - f(x) to explore this relationship further.

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  • Understanding of periodic functions and their properties
  • Knowledge of derivatives and their periodicity
  • Familiarity with trigonometric functions and their behaviors
  • Basic skills in mathematical proof techniques
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  • Research the properties of periodic functions and their derivatives
  • Study specific trigonometric functions like sec(x), csc(x), and cot(x) to analyze their periodicity
  • Learn about constructing counterexamples in mathematical proofs
  • Explore the implications of the function g(x) = f(x + p) - f(x) and its derivative
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Homework Statement


A function f(x) has a periodic derivative. In other words f ' (x + p) = f ' (x) for some real value of p. Is f(x) necessarily periodic? Prove or give a counterexample.


Homework Equations


Periodic functions and Periodic Derivatives


The Attempt at a Solution


To be honest, this question stumped me because the only functions that i can think of when the mention of periodic comes is trig functions. I'm thinking that it must be a trig function which can act as a counterexample, specifically secx,cscx or cotx. however I'm not sure if these functions are periodic in the first place and then if their derivatives are periodic. I'm quite sure their derivatives are periodic but I'm not sure if they are periodic and if they're not, that will act as a counterexample. I'm worried that this might be true, because its much easier to disprove an argument than it is to prove it. If this is true, can someone help me go about the means of proving it. Thank you.
 
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The derivative of f(x) can be periodic even if f(x) isn't periodic. Concentrate on finding a counterexample. There's actually another thread on this same problem. The hint given was you know if g(x)=f(x+p)-f(x), so you know g'(x)=0. Does that make g(x) zero?
 

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