batballbat
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If any number of forces acting on a point is in equilibrium then the forces does not necessarily form a polygon of forces? How can we prove it?
Okay.batballbat said:so if the forces acting on the point do not form a polygon they do form an incomplete rectilinear figure with one side incomplete the side being the resultant of the forces. But as the forces are in equilibrium the resultant must be zero.
Why do you say this?batballbat said:But the resultant is not zero.
batballbat said:THen they must form a polygon. can somebody help me with this?
so why does my book say that the converse of polygon of forces is not true?
Polygon of Forces: If any number of forces, acting on a particle, be represented, in magnitude and direction, by the sides of a polygon, taken in, order, the forces shall be in equilibrium.
Note: the converse of polygon of forces is not true
Studiot said:You didn't answer my question about homework, but never mind this time.
The quote from the book is all true.
It says If the forces do form a polygon then theyare in equilibrium.
It also says that the converse is not true ie
If the forces do not form a polygon then they are not in equilibrium.
So that implies that there is at least one more way in which the forces can be in equilibrium.
What does you book say about parallel forces?
But here we are dealing with forces acting on a single point.
if any number of forces of acting on a point be in equilibrium then either they form a polygon or they are parallel?
batballbat said:i searched in google and found a book which contains the following reasoning:
THe converse of the polygon of forces in not true. A number of polygons can be found whose sides represent the forces, all the polygons are similar; but any polygon with its sides parallel to the forces will not represent them.
can somebody explain this to me?