Prove that lim x -> 0 sin (1/x) doesn't exist

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that the limit of sin(1/x) as x approaches 0 does not exist. The problem is situated within the context of limits and trigonometric functions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to demonstrate the non-existence of the limit by considering different sequences approaching infinity and their corresponding sine values. Some participants suggest that the approach could be simplified by using direct sequences converging to 0 instead.

Discussion Status

Participants are exploring various methods to prove the limit's non-existence, with some suggesting alternative approaches that may be more straightforward. There is recognition of the complexity in the original method, and a consensus on the need for clearer justification when changing limits.

Contextual Notes

Some participants note that the original approach may not adequately address the behavior of the function as x approaches 0 from different directions, highlighting the importance of using sequences that converge to 0.

Portuga
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Homework Statement


prove that
<br /> <br /> \lim_{x\rightarrow 0} \sin \left( \frac{1}{x} \right)<br /> <br /> doesn't exist.

Homework Equations


<br /> \lim_{x\rightarrow0}\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)=\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\sin u<br />

The Attempt at a Solution


My strategy to solve this problem is to make u \rightarrow \infty through different paths and show that the limits are different.
So, first one is a_{u}=\frac{\pi}{2}+2\pi u,\,u\in\mathbb{N}. Second one is <br /> b_{u}=u\pi,\,u\in\mathbb{N}.
Both these have the same behavior as u \rightarrow \infty:
<br /> <br /> \lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}a_{u}=\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}b_{u}=\infty.<br /> <br />
For with first one,
<br /> \begin{aligned}\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\sin a_{u} &amp; =\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2}+2\pi u\right)\\ &amp; =\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\cos2\pi u+\sin2\pi u\cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\\ &amp; =\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\cos2\pi u+\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\sin2\pi u\cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\\ &amp; =\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\cos2\pi u+\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\sin2\pi u\cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right). \end{aligned}<br />

The limit <br /> \lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\sin2\pi u\cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)<br /> tends to 0, as <br /> \cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)<br /> tends to 0, and <br /> \sin2\pi u<br /> is limited both upper and lower bound.

Therefore, <br /> \lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\sin a_{u}=1.<br />

Now, <br /> \lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\sin b_{u}=\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\sin u\pi=0,<br /> as, \forall u, u\pi is an multiple of \pi, which \sin is null.
Then, <br /> \lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\sin b_{u}=0.<br />
Because of these two different results for different paths, it's true that <br /> \nexists\lim_{x\rightarrow0}\sin\frac{1}{x}.<br />

Am I correct?
Thanks in advance!
 
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It looks okay, but could have been a lot simpler:

##\sin(\frac{\pi}{2} + 2\pi u) = \sin{\frac{\pi}{2}} = 1##

Also, you could just let ##a_u = \frac{1}{\frac{\pi}{2} + 2\pi u}## and keep the limits going to ##0##.
 
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You are overthinking this. The individual functions are constant, their limit is easy to find.
Directly using sequences for the original function is better, because it avoids issues with the sign change at 0.
 
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mfb said:
You are overthinking this. The individual functions are constant, their limit is easy to find.
Directly using sequences for the original function is better, because it avoids issues with the sign change at 0.
You mean, I should use <br /> a_{u}=\frac{1}{\frac{\pi}{2}+2\pi u},\,u\in\mathbb{N}<br /> and <br /> \lim_{x\rightarrow0}\sin\frac{1}{x}<br /> since the beginning, correct?
 
PeroK said:
It looks okay, but could have been a lot simpler:

##\sin(\frac{\pi}{2} + 2\pi u) = \sin{\frac{\pi}{2}} = 1##

Also, you could just let ##a_u = \frac{1}{\frac{\pi}{2} + 2\pi u}## and keep the limits going to ##0##.
 
Portuga said:
You mean, I should use <br /> a_{u}=\frac{1}{\frac{\pi}{2}+2\pi u},\,u\in\mathbb{N}<br /> and <br /> \lim_{x\rightarrow0}\sin\frac{1}{x}<br /> since the beginning, correct?

I thought you were using the idea of finding two sequences that converge to 0 but for which the two sequences of function values converge to different values. That looks fine as an approach. Changing the limit to ##\infty## requires a bit more justification.
 
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PeroK said:
I thought you were using the idea of finding two sequences that converge to 0 but for which the two sequences of function values converge to different values. That looks fine as an approach. Changing the limit to ##\infty## requires a bit more justification.
Yes, that's exactly what's my initial approach was: two sequences converging to same value, but producing different limits with \sin \left( \frac{1}{x} \right).
 
Portuga said:

Homework Equations


<br /> \lim_{x\rightarrow0}\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)=\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\sin u<br />

One minor problem is that:

<br /> \lim_{x\rightarrow0+}\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)=\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\sin u<br />

This is not fatal to your proof, but what you have is not quite right. It's better to stick with sequences going to 0.
 

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