Prove that the law of excluded middle does not hold in some many-valued logic

  • Thread starter Thread starter hatsoff
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Law Logic
AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on the law of excluded middle (LEM) and its applicability in many-valued logic systems. Participants explore whether it is possible to demonstrate a scenario where a proposition P exists such that ¬(P∨¬P) holds true. They highlight that in multivalued systems, P can take on values beyond true or false, which challenges the validity of LEM. The conversation also touches on intuitionistic logic, which rejects LEM while accepting the law of noncontradiction, emphasizing the constructivist viewpoint that limits certain proof methods. Overall, the thread seeks to clarify the conditions under which LEM may not hold in non-binary logical frameworks.
hatsoff
Messages
16
Reaction score
3
Hi, all.

Wikipedia says:

In logic, the law of the excluded middle states that the propositional calculus formula "P ∨ ¬P" ("P or not-P") can be deduced from the calculus under investigation. It is one of the defining properties of classical systems of logic. However, some systems of logic have different but analogous laws, while others reject the law of excluded middle entirely.​

(emphasis added)

My question is, can we prove that the bolded claim is true? For some many-valued logic, can we show that for some condition, there is P with ¬(P∨¬P) ?

Thanks!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
"can we show that for some condition, there is P with ¬(P∨¬P) ?"

There exists a P such that ¬(P∨¬P)
There exists a P such that ¬P Λ P

Lets prove this by contradiction. It seems really easy, although I'm not sure if it is valid since the law of excluded middle isn't meant to be applied to non-binary systems.

For every P, (P V ¬P)
In a multivalued system, this isn't true, because P can be something besides true or false.

Therefore the opposite, ¬P Λ P, is true.

Okay, that's my poor attempt at it. I would give it more of a mathematical go if I had more time. Actually, I'm procrastinating right now.
 
hatsoff said:
My question is, can we prove that the bolded claim is true? For some many-valued logic, can we show that for some condition, there is P with ¬(P∨¬P) ?

Surely the axiomatic logic with schema
¬(P∨¬P)
for all propositions P would meet your requirement, but I imagine that's not what you intend.

Also, be careful: there are logics which reject the law of the excluded middle (for all propositions P, P∨¬P) but accept the law of noncontradiction (for all propositions P, ¬(P∨¬P)). Intuitionistic logic would be an example.
 
When they say that some systems reject the law of the excluded middle, I believe what they're talking about is the constructivist viewpoint. Basically, if you are a constructivist, contradiction proofs go out the window.
 
I was reading a Bachelor thesis on Peano Arithmetic (PA). PA has the following axioms (not including the induction schema): $$\begin{align} & (A1) ~~~~ \forall x \neg (x + 1 = 0) \nonumber \\ & (A2) ~~~~ \forall xy (x + 1 =y + 1 \to x = y) \nonumber \\ & (A3) ~~~~ \forall x (x + 0 = x) \nonumber \\ & (A4) ~~~~ \forall xy (x + (y +1) = (x + y ) + 1) \nonumber \\ & (A5) ~~~~ \forall x (x \cdot 0 = 0) \nonumber \\ & (A6) ~~~~ \forall xy (x \cdot (y + 1) = (x \cdot y) + x) \nonumber...
I was reading documentation about the soundness and completeness of logic formal systems. Consider the following $$\vdash_S \phi$$ where ##S## is the proof-system making part the formal system and ##\phi## is a wff (well formed formula) of the formal language. Note the blank on left of the turnstile symbol ##\vdash_S##, as far as I can tell it actually represents the empty set. So what does it mean ? I guess it actually means ##\phi## is a theorem of the formal system, i.e. there is a...
Back
Top