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Suppose I have a sequence
a_0 = 1
a_n = \sum_{k=1}^n f(k)\cdot a_{n-k}
where f(n) is a known function (in binomial coefficients, powers, and the like).
In general, how would I go about proving that a_n\sim g(n)? I'm working on more closely estimating the function by calculating its value for large n, along with first and second differences. (Suggestions on better methods are welcome, though I think I'm nearly there -- the second differences look suspiciously hyperbolic.)
Any help would be appreciated.
a_0 = 1
a_n = \sum_{k=1}^n f(k)\cdot a_{n-k}
where f(n) is a known function (in binomial coefficients, powers, and the like).
In general, how would I go about proving that a_n\sim g(n)? I'm working on more closely estimating the function by calculating its value for large n, along with first and second differences. (Suggestions on better methods are welcome, though I think I'm nearly there -- the second differences look suspiciously hyperbolic.)
Any help would be appreciated.