Proving Convergence: Limit of a Sequence with Conditions

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the limit of a sequence \( a_n \) under the condition that \( \lim (a_n)^{1/n} < 1 \) as \( n \) approaches infinity, with \( a_n \geq 0 \) for all \( n \). Participants are exploring the implications of this condition on the limit of the sequence itself.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the relationship between the limit of the sequence and the conditions given. There are attempts to apply the sandwich theorem and considerations of choosing \( e \) appropriately. Questions arise regarding the bounds of \( a_n \) and the implications of different choices for \( e \).

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing exploration of the problem, with some participants suggesting specific approaches and clarifications regarding the conditions. While some progress has been made in reasoning, there is no explicit consensus on the final steps or conclusions.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of defining the limit \( a \) and the implications of choosing \( e \) such that \( a + e < 1 \). There is also a mention of potential constraints regarding the behavior of \( a_n \) relative to other sequences.

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let a_n be a sequence which satisfies lim (a_n)^1/n<1 as n appraoches infinity, a_n>=0 for every n. prove that lim a_n=0.
what i did is as follows, for every e>0 there exists n0 such that for every n>=n0 |a_n^1/n-a|<e.
then 0=<a_n<(a+e)^n
we get a<1 a_n<(1+e)^n
but how do i procceed from here?
 
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loop quantum gravity said:
let a_n be a sequence which satisfies lim (a_n)^1/n<1 as n appraoches infinity, a_n>=0 for every n. prove that lim a_n=0.
what i did is as follows, for every e>0 there exists n0 such that for every n>=n0 |a_n^1/n-a|<e.
You should mention what a is (the limit of {(a_n)^1/n})
then 0=<a_n<(a+e)^n
Remember, you can choose e to be whatever you like, and you know that a < 1. So why not choose e to be small enough that a + e < 1? Then use the sandwich theorem.
 
i thought about this, but even then i get that 0<=a_n<1^n, i also thought to write: e=1/a-1>0 but 1/a^n doesn't converge.
perhaps i should write 0<=a_n<1/n<=1, but no one guarntees us that a_n is smaller than 1/n, a_n could be equal 2/n.
 
ok i think i got it (a+e)^n appraoches 0 when e is small enough.
 
loop quantum gravity said:
ok i think i got it (a+e)^n appraoches 0 when e is small enough.
Yes, in fact you want e small enough so that a + e < 1 as Ortho mentioned. The reason for this is because one can prove that if c<1 then lim(c)^n = 0 as n goes to infinity.
 
It is too late to edit the above post, so I would just like to add a correction. There should be an absolute value sign around c, so it should say if |c| < 1, then lim(c)^n = 0.
 

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