Proving Permutation Identity: Ʃ(n choose k)(m-n choose n-k) = (m choose n)

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1. Prove the following identity:
Ʃ(n choose k)(m-n choose n-k) = (m choose n)
from k = 0 to k = n


I've tried induction, and just played around with a few properties of permutations, but nothing seems to satisfy the proof, any ideas?
 
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Hi Brandon1994! :smile:

If you choose n things from m,

how many of those n will be in the first n, and how many will be in the last n-m ? :wink:
 
I would use a direct approach: Show that the left side is the number of ways to choose n elements out of a set of m elements. The sum is very intuitive if you see what it does.

Edit: tiny-tim, don't make it too easy ;).
 
mfb said:
Edit: tiny-tim, don't make it too easy ;).

hi mfb! :smile:

i assumed he'd already tried to split the sum, and needed an extra hint :wink:
 
Brandon1994 said:
1. Prove the following identity:
Ʃ(n choose k)(m-n choose n-k) = (m choose n)
from k = 0 to k = n


I've tried induction, and just played around with a few properties of permutations, but nothing seems to satisfy the proof, any ideas?


Hint: (n choose k) is called the binomial coefficient for a good reason: it appears in the binomial expansion! Exploit that fact.
 
There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...
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