Proving r^n > r^m through mathematical induction

AI Thread Summary
To prove that for any real number r where 0 < r < 1, r^n > r^m for all positive integers n and m with n < m, mathematical induction is required. The key insight is recognizing that multiplying a positive number by a fraction between 0 and 1 results in a smaller number, which supports the inequality. The initial step involves establishing a base case and then formulating an inductive step to demonstrate the relationship holds for all integers. Clarification on how to structure the proof and the use of logarithms was suggested to aid understanding. A formal inductive proof will solidify the argument.
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Homework Statement



I need to prove that for any real number r, if 0 < r < 1, then for all positive integers n and m, if n < m, then r^n > r^m.


Homework Equations



No calculus techniques are permitted, only mathematical induction.

The Attempt at a Solution



I know that any fraction between 0 and 1 is going to get smaller if it is multiplied by anything positive, so this is obviously true.

I know that I first need to figure out what predicate to use, but I'm having a problem with all of the variables.

Im not looking for the answer, just a little bit of direction. Where/how do I begin? I know what to prove, I just don't know how to prove it.

Thanks for any help out there
 
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tmay82 said:

Homework Statement



I need to prove that for any real number r, if 0 < r < 1, then for all positive integers n and m, if n < m, then r^n > r^m.


Homework Equations



No calculus techniques are permitted, only mathematical induction.

The Attempt at a Solution



I know that any fraction between 0 and 1 is going to get smaller if it is multiplied by anything positive, so this is obviously true.

I know that I first need to figure out what predicate to use, but I'm having a problem with all of the variables.

Im not looking for the answer, just a little bit of direction. Where/how do I begin? I know what to prove, I just don't know how to prove it.

Thanks for any help out there

Perhaps you could take the logarithm of both sides of the inequality.
 
To be honest I don't know much about induction, but it has been something I want to learn. I wasn't going to reply here because I don't know anything about it, but I went to khan academy and found this video! Coincidence? I don't know if it's what you need, but I hope it helps.

http://www.khanacademy.org/video/proof-by-induction?playlist=Algebra
 
tmay82 said:
I know that any fraction between 0 and 1 is going to get smaller if it is multiplied by anything positive, so this is obviously true.

No, you have that the wrong way around. Anything positive is going to get smaller if multiplied by a number between 0 and 1. So that's the basis of your inductive step right there. Now you just need to write it out formally as an inductive proof.
 
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