Proving Sigma Notation Equals Zero

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on proving that the sum of deviations from the mean, represented by the sigma notation \sum_{i=1}^n (x_i - \overline{x}), equals zero. The key steps involve manipulating the equation to show that \sum_{i=1}^n x_i - n\overline{x} = 0, which simplifies to n\overline{x} - n\overline{x} = 0. Participants clarify that \overline{x} is independent of the index i, allowing the sums to be equated. The conclusion is reached by demonstrating that both sides of the equation yield the same value, confirming the initial statement. This proof illustrates the fundamental property of the mean in statistics.
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Homework Statement


Show:
\sum_{i=1}^n (x_i - \overline{x}) = 0


Homework Equations


Sigma notation


The Attempt at a Solution



\sum_{i=1}^n x_i - \sum_{i=1}^n \overline{x} = \sum_{i=1}^n x_i - \frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n \sum_{i=1}^n x_i = 0
\sum_{i=1}^n x_i = \frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n \sum_{i=1}^n x_i

By Inspection I know i need to show that:
\sum_{i=1}^n \frac{1}{n}=1

Since the LHS has no x_i how can i show that the sum will result in n/n =1?

Is it just:
\sum_{i=1}^n 1 = n?
 
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consider that \overline{x} is idependent of i therefore \sum_{i=1}^n\overline{x} simply equals n \overline{x}. Also IMPORTANT NOTE: In the second line of your attempted solution you use the fact that \sum_{i=1}^n (x_i - \overline{x}) = 0 how ever that's what you're trying to SHOW so you can't assume it's true. You have to work entirely on the LHS and get it equal to 0.
 
Ah, I get it now thanks alot!

So on the first step it'd just be the n*xbar/n leaving only sum of x - sum of x which =0.

Thank You!
 
Err no it'd be
\sum_{i=1}^n (x_i - \overline{x}) = 0
\sum_{i=1}^n x_i - n\overline{x} = 0
n \sum_{i=1}^n \frac{x_i}{n} - n\overline{x} = 0

n\overline{x} - n\overline{x} = 0

which gives you zero... hope he comes back to read that.
 
ah okay, I was expanding the xbar so there would be 2 equal sums being subrated which would just =0.

\sum_{i=1}^n x_i - n \frac{1}{n} \sum_{j=1}^n x_j = 0

since n/n =1, and both sums start and end at the same place they are both equal and thus will give 0 as the answer.
 
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