Fundamental particle must have an integer or half integer spin, OK, that's fine. But why should a hadron, which is a real soup of quarks and gluons, have a well-defined spin. The wave function for the hadron is doubtlessly the superposition of multiquark states (not just two or three (or five :surprise: ) quarks), and mutligluons as well. My question would be : how come that in the end of the day, we observe only well defined quantum numbers for hadrons ?
That is to say : how come this naive picture of the quark-constituent model works so well when it comes to quantum numbers, but fail when dynamical questions come into play ?
Let me illustrate : the proton for example could be pictured as :
|p->) = ( { uud } * { -> -> <- } * [ rgb ] ) = 1/sqrt(18) * ((2u->u->d<-) - (u->u<-d->) - (u<-u->d->) + permut)
flavor * spin * color
with {symetrization} and [antisymetrization]
OK, in this case, the proton spin is clearly understood : it comes from the valence quarks.
But we know that this picture is really wrong, we know that the quark spins contribute only up to 30% to the proton spin. As for the nucleon mass, which should be computed either using constituent quark mass(~300 MeV), or current quark mass (~ few MeV) in the context of which about 10% of the baryon mass comes from Higgs contribution, the remaining 90% coming from the gluon field around the valence state.