Proving the scaling property of the Delta function

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the scaling property of the Delta function, specifically the relationship \(\delta(at) = \frac{1}{|a|}\delta(t)\). Participants are exploring the implications of this property within the context of integrals involving the Delta function.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the evaluation of integrals involving the Delta function and the implications of substituting variables. Questions arise regarding the role of the constant \(a\) in the evaluation and the necessity of using the absolute value in the final expression.

Discussion Status

The conversation is ongoing, with participants providing insights into the manipulation of integrals and the treatment of constants. Some guidance has been offered regarding the substitution of variables and the handling of absolute values, but there is no explicit consensus on the proof or its implications yet.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of the limits of integration and the behavior of the Delta function under transformation, particularly when \(a\) is negative. There is a recognition of the need to clarify assumptions about the variables involved.

caesius
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Homework Statement



Prove that \delta(at)=\frac{1}{abs(a)}\delta(t)

Hint: Show that \int\phi(t)\delta(at)dt=\frac{1}{abs(a)}\phi(0)

(the limits of integration are from -inf to +inf btw, I couldn't find how to put them in..)

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



Ok. I understand that the integral is only defined for at = 0, i.e., t = 0. But if I follow this logical then I evaluate the integral to be phi(0), not phi(0)/a. Where does the a come from?

And I'm not entirely sure how proving that relationship helps with the proof of the scaling function...
 
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That trick only works when the argument to the delta is the bare integration variable.
So try substituting u = a t, so you get something like
\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(u) \delta(u) \, du = f(0)
(and click the formula to see how I did the boundaries)
 
Ok I've substituted x = at, now I get

<br /> \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\phi(\frac{x}{a})\delta(x)d\frac{x}{a} = \frac{1}{a}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\phi(\frac{x}{a})\delta(x)dx = \frac{1}{a}\phi(\frac{0}{a}) = \frac{1}{a}\phi(0)<br />

I don't quite see how I'm allowed to take the 1/a out of the d/dx operater and put it at the front though. And why should it be the abs(a) not a?

And I still can't see how this helps prove anything.

Cheers, Benjamin
 
You are allowed to take the a outside, because it is just a constant: du = a dt, so dt = (1/a) du, and you can put constants outside the integration as in
\int \tfrac12 x^2 \, dx = \tfrac12 \int x^2 \, dx

The absolute value of a comes from transforming the integration boundaries. If a < 0, then -infinity goes to +infinity in the transformed integral, and vice versa. However, in the final formula you simply want -infinity to be the lower boundary, and +infinity as the upper boundary. So if a < 0 you have to swap them, at the cost of a minus sign, whereas for a > 0 you don't. Do you have to multiply the whole thing by sgn(a), and then you can shorten sgn(a) / a to 1/abs(a).
 

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