Proving the Surjectivity of Maps in Cyclic Groups with Relatively Prime Integers

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the surjectivity of the map \( x \mapsto x^k \) in a cyclic group \( G \) of order \( n \), where \( k \) is an integer that is relatively prime to \( n \.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to prove the contrapositive of the statement regarding surjectivity and questions whether the non-surjectivity implies the existence of distinct elements mapping to the same value. Other participants suggest checking specific cases with numerical examples to gain insight into the proof.

Discussion Status

Participants are engaging with the original poster's proof and providing feedback. Some guidance has been offered regarding the implications of the map's surjectivity and the properties of cyclic groups. The discussion is exploring various interpretations of the proof's validity and the reasoning behind it.

Contextual Notes

There is an ongoing exploration of the implications of the map's surjectivity and the conditions under which it holds, particularly focusing on the relationship between \( n \) and \( k \). The original poster expresses a desire to improve their ability to identify flaws in proofs.

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Homework Statement


Let [itex]G[/itex] be a cyclic group of order [itex]n[/itex] and let [itex]k[/itex] be an integer relatively prime to [itex]n[/itex]. Prove that the map [itex]x\mapsto x^k[/itex] is sujective.


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


I am trying to prove the contrapositon but I am not sure about one thing: If the map is not surjective, does it necessarily mean that there exists distinct [itex]i,j \in \{1,...n\}[/itex] such that [itex](x^i)^k=(x^j)^k[/itex]? If so how would you prove it?

Anyway here is my proof:

Suppose that the map is not surjective. Then there exists distinct [itex]i,j \in \{1,...n\}[/itex] such that [itex](x^i)^k=(x^j)^k[/itex]. Without loss of generality suppose [itex]i>j[/itex]. Using the cancellation laws we get [itex]x^{(i-j)k}=1[/itex]. Since [itex]|x|=n[/itex], it follows that [itex]n|(i-j)k[/itex] (By another proposition). If [itex]gcd(n,k)=1[/itex] then [itex]n|(i-j)[/itex], a contradiction since [itex](i-j) < n[/itex]. Hence we must have [itex]gcd(n,k) \not= 1[/itex] and so [itex]k[/itex] is not relatively prime to [itex]n[/itex]. Therefore by contraposition, if [itex]k[/itex] is relatively prime to [itex]n[/itex] then [itex]x\mapsto x^k[/itex] is surjective.

Quite often I find it hard to check whether a proof has flaws in it. How can I improve on checking for flaws in a proof?

Any help would be appreciated.
 
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Your proof looks fine to me. If your group is cyclic and x is a generator then your group is G={x^0,x^1,...x^(n-1)}. So, yes, if x->x^k is not surjective then two of those elements must map to the same thing. Hence (x^i)^k=(x^j)^k for some i and j less than n. Sometimes putting real numbers in for n and k helps to check, e.g. put n=6. Show the map is surjective if k=5 and not surjective if k=4 by writing all of the elements out. It should give you a feeling for what's going on if the proof itself isn't giving you that.
 
Thanks for the reply Dick.

So the image of the map is a subset of G, that is why if the map is not surjective then two elements must map to the same thing. Is that correct?
 
Flying_Goat said:
Thanks for the reply Dick.

So the image of the map is a subset of G, that is why if the map is not surjective then two elements must map to the same thing. Is that correct?

Sure. If x is in G, then x^k is in G. Groups are closed under the operation.
 

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