Particle in a Box: Solving for Acceptable Wave Function with Boundary Conditions

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The discussion centers on determining whether the wave function Ψ = (2/L)^{1/2} sin(πx/L) is an acceptable solution for a particle in a box with infinite potential walls. The key boundary conditions require that the wave function equals zero at the boundaries x = -L/2 and x = L/2. While the sine function does satisfy these conditions, there is confusion regarding the normalization factor and the general form of acceptable wave functions, which can include both sine and cosine terms. Ultimately, the consensus is that the proposed wave function does meet the boundary conditions, making it a valid solution. The normalization aspect becomes irrelevant if the boundary conditions are not satisfied.
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Homework Statement



V(x) = 0 if \frac{-L}{2}<x<\frac{L}{2} and \infty otherwise.

Is the wave function \Psi = (2/L)^{1/2} (sin (\pix/L) an acceptable solution to this? Explain

Homework Equations



H\Psi= E\Psi , normalization: 1 = \int wavefunction^{2}dx

The Attempt at a Solution



My logic is that I have to come up with a wave function that satisfy the boundary condition. Therefore \Psi (x= \frac{-L}{2}) = \Psi (x = \frac{L}{2}) = 0

My initial answer was that it's not because I was thinking that the wavefunction itself has to be A[/itex]cosine(bx), where b=2n\pi/L. n = 1/4, 3/4 , 5/4 ...

I am not quite sure if that's correct. Also when I try to calculate the normalization factor (A), it turns out to be 1 = \frac{A^{2}L}{2} + \frac{A^{2}L}{n\pi} sin (\frac{n\pi}{2})
 
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thomashpotato said:

Homework Statement



V(x) = 0 if \frac{-L}{2}<x<\frac{L}{2} and \infty otherwise.

Is the wave function \Psi = (2/L)^{1/2} (sin (\pix/L) an acceptable solution to this? Explain

Homework Equations



H\Psi= E\Psi , normalization: 1 = \int wavefunction^{2}dx

The Attempt at a Solution



My logic is that I have to come up with a wave function that satisfy the boundary condition. Therefore \Psi (x= \frac{-L}{2}) = \Psi (x = \frac{L}{2}) = 0
This is right. Does the proposed wave function satisfy these conditions?

My initial answer was that it's not because I was thinking that the wavefunction itself has to be A[/itex]cosine(bx), where b=2n\pi/L. n = 1/4, 3/4 , 5/4 ...
You'll actually get both sine and cosine solutions if you solve the infinite square well problem completely, so just because this wave function has a sine in it isn't reason enough to exclude it.

I am not quite sure if that's correct. Also when I try to calculate the normalization factor (A), it turns out to be 1 = \frac{A^{2}L}{2} + \frac{A^{2}L}{n\pi} sin (\frac{n\pi}{2})
 
I think your reasoning is correct. The wave function doesn't vanish at the boundaries. So it's not good. I wouldn't worry about whether the normalization is correct if the boundary conditions aren't correct.
 
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