adartsesirhc
- 54
- 0
I'm reading Griffiths', and I had a question about the harmonic oscillator.
Griffiths solves the Schrodinger equation using ladder operators, and he then says that there must be a "lowest rung," or \psi_{0}, such that a_\psi_{0} = 0. I'm guessing this also means that E = 0 for a_\psi_{0}, which is why it wouldn't be allowable.
Because a_\psi_{0} is (mathematically, at least) a solution to the Schrodinger equation, it corresponds to the energy (E_{0} - \hbar\omega), which equals zero. Doesn't this mean that E_{0} = \hbar\omega?
But then this conflicts with Griffith's statement that E_{0} = \frac{1}{2}\hbar\omega. HELP!
Griffiths solves the Schrodinger equation using ladder operators, and he then says that there must be a "lowest rung," or \psi_{0}, such that a_\psi_{0} = 0. I'm guessing this also means that E = 0 for a_\psi_{0}, which is why it wouldn't be allowable.
Because a_\psi_{0} is (mathematically, at least) a solution to the Schrodinger equation, it corresponds to the energy (E_{0} - \hbar\omega), which equals zero. Doesn't this mean that E_{0} = \hbar\omega?
But then this conflicts with Griffith's statement that E_{0} = \frac{1}{2}\hbar\omega. HELP!