- #1

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Since the momentum before has to equal the momentum afterward wouldnt the change in the velocity also be equal?

Thank you.

Stephen

- Thread starter StephenDoty
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- #1

- 265

- 0

Since the momentum before has to equal the momentum afterward wouldnt the change in the velocity also be equal?

Thank you.

Stephen

- #2

- 836

- 13

No, because they have different masses. Their change in momentum will be equal, p=mv.

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