Quick Integral/Derivative question.

Thread starter synthetic.
Start date Dec 1, 2008

Dec 1, 2008

synthetic.

Is it always true that if; f(x) = f '(x), then; -f (x) = - \int f '(x) ?

That is, the negative of a derivative has an integral which is simply the negative of the original function? (ignoring arbitiary constants)

Last edited: Dec 2, 2008

Physics news on Phys.org

Scientist returns to microbial roots and discovers potential quantum computing advancement
Physicists achieve record precision in measuring proton-to-electron mass ratio with H₂⁺
Quantum calculations provide a sharper image of subatomic stress

Dec 1, 2008

adriank

Yes - the right side is just f(x), up to a constant.

Thread 'How does time derivative commute from one variable to another?'

I'm reviewing Meirovitch's "Methods of Analytical Dynamics," and I don't understand the commutation of the derivative from r to dr: $$ \mathbf{F} \cdot d\mathbf{r} = m \ddot{\mathbf{r}} \cdot d\mathbf{r} = m\mathbf{\dot{r}} \cdot d\mathbf{\dot{r}} $$

View full post »