R-module homomorphisms isomorphic to codomain

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The discussion focuses on proving that the set of R-module homomorphisms from R to an R-module M is isomorphic to M itself. The proposed mapping is defined by sending a homomorphism f to its evaluation at the identity element 1_R. The challenge lies in demonstrating surjectivity, which requires finding a function f such that f(1_R) equals any element m in M. A solution is suggested by defining f such that f(r) equals rm, ensuring it satisfies the properties of an R-module homomorphism. This approach confirms the isomorphism between Hom_{R-mod}(R,M) and M.
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Homework Statement


Let R be a commutative ring, and M be an R-module. Show that
\text{Hom}_{\text{R-mod}}(R,M) \cong M
as R-modules, where the homomorphisms are R-module homomorphisms.

The Attempt at a Solution



This should hopefully be quick and easy. The most natural mapping to consider is
\phi: \text{Hom}_{\text{R-mod}}(R,M) \to M sending f \to f(1_R). It is simple to show that this is a R-mod homomorphism, and that it is injective. Where I am stuck is surjectivity.

The first thing that comes to mind is that I want to use constant maps; however, these are not R-mod homs. Secondly, I've realized that I have not yet used the fact that the ring is commutative. I'm wondering if somehow f(rs) = rf(s) = sf(r) comes into play.
 
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Hi Kreizhn! :smile:

To prove surjectivity, you must prove that every m in M is in the image of the isomorphism. So you need to find a function f such that f(1_R)=m. Can you extend this equation to fully define f? (hint: f(r)=f(r.1_R).
 
Ah, I think I see what you're saying. We can just define the function in such a way that it forces it to be an R-module homomorphism by demanding that
f(r) = rf(1) = rm
Then the function is a homomorphism since M is an R-module.
 
Kreizhn said:
Ah, I think I see what you're saying. We can just define the function in such a way that it forces it to be an R-module homomorphism by demanding that
f(r) = rf(1) = rm
Then the function is a homomorphism since M is an R-module.

Yes, that's it!
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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