Raindrop Velocity and Mass Dynamics: Finding Space Traversed Over Time

AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around the dynamics of a raindrop gaining mass as it falls, with a focus on deriving the space traversed over time. The initial mass of the raindrop is denoted as M0, and the mass gain occurs at a constant rate μ. Participants explore the application of Newton's laws and momentum principles to formulate the equations governing the motion, while also addressing the complexities introduced by the increasing mass. Various approaches to solving the differential equations are suggested, with some participants questioning the accuracy of certain methods. The overall consensus is that the problem, while challenging, is manageable with the right mathematical framework.
GregoryGr
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Homework Statement



Water vapor condense in a raindrop with rate μ units of mass per time.
The raindrop starts with 0 velocity with initial mass $$ M_0 $$ and falls horizontally. Find the space it traverses as a function of time (g is given).

Homework Equations



∂m/ ∂t= μ

The Attempt at a Solution



Assuming that the mass dm of vapor to be condesed has a total velocity v0, and using Newton's law, I have g= \frac{dv}{dt} + \frac{dm*(v-v0)}{dt*m} . From there the only thing i could think is that I could write dv/dt as dv/dm*dm/dt but it doesn't seem to help...
 
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Nice problem.
Presumably all the incremental mass gained as the original drop falls under gravity is at 0 velocity as well, so there will be a constant retarding force on the drop. However, because the drop is increasing in mass over time, the slowing effect of the additional mass declines.
 
Hi GregoryGr! :smile:
GregoryGr said:
… and falls horizontally.

(That's a good trick! :biggrin:)

Consider the momentum (and force) at times t and t+dt.

(and use m(t) = Mo + µt from the start! :wink:)
 
GregoryGr said:
Assuming that the mass dm of vapor to be condesed has a total velocity v0, and using Newton's law, I have g= \frac{dv}{dt} + \frac{dm*(v-v0)}{dt*m} .
Good start. Can you write m as a function of t?
 
Well, I got the answer without writing the momentum @ t and t+dt, with this:

$$\vec{F}= \frac{d\vec{p}}{dt} \Rightarrow \int_{0}^{t}\mu gdt=\int_{0}^{\mu v}d(\mu v)$$
Anybody want to show me alternative ways to solve it? It seems that the integral you have to calculate is too hard for a physics I exercise.

EDIT: where I write /mu I meant the m(t)
 
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GregoryGr said:
Well, I got the answer without writing the momentum @ t and t+dt, with this:

$$\vec{F}= \frac{d\vec{p}}{dt} \Rightarrow \int_{0}^{t}\mu gdt=\int_{0}^{\mu v}d(\mu v)$$
Not sure how you get that, and it doesn't look to me like it's going to give the right answer. What answer did you get from it?
What was wrong with your initial approach? What ODE did you get after writing m = μt? It didn't look hard to solve to me. Because the terms (gt, v, v't) are dimensionally the same, a natural try is v = Atα.
 
Begin:
dm/dt = u --> m(t) = u * t + M0, where m(0) = M0
F = d/dt(m * v) = m * dv/dt + v * dm/dt = -m * g, assuming no air resistance.
m * dv/dm * u = -v * u - m * g --> dv/dm + (1/m) * v = -g/u --> d/dm(m * v) = -m * g/u --> m * v = -m^2 * g/(2 * u) + C -->
v(m) = -m * g/(2 * u) + C/m, v(M0) = 0 --> C = M0^2 * g/ (2 * u) -->
v(m) = -g/(2 * u) * (m - M0^2/m) -->
v(t) = -g/(2 * u) * (u * t + M0 - M0^2/(u * t + m0))
Integrating we obtain:
x(t) = -g/(2 * u^2) * ((u * t + M0)^2/2 - M0^2 * ln(u * t + m0)) + K

If x(0) = h --> K = h + g/(2 * u^2) * (M0^2/2 - M0^2 * ln(M0)) -->
x(t) = -g/(2 * u^2) * ((u * t + M0)^2/2 - M0^2/2 + M0^2 * ln(M0/(u * t + M0)) + h.
End.

For x(m) we have:
x(m) = -g/(2 * u^2) * ((m^2 - M0^2)/2 + M0^2 * ln(M0/m)) + h.
 
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I think that ##\mu_0,\,M_0## must satisfy:
$$ \frac{\partial{m}}{\partial{t}} = Cm(t) \,\text{where}\, \left[\frac{\partial{m}}{\partial{t}}\right]_{t=0} = \mu_0 $$
 
theodoros.mihos said:
I think that ##\mu_0,\,M_0## must satisfy:
$$ \frac{\partial{m}}{\partial{t}} = Cm(t) \,\text{where}\, \left[\frac{\partial{m}}{\partial{t}}\right]_{t=0} = \mu_0 $$
The problem statement is clear that the rate of mass gain is constant.
 
  • #10
So the force is constant, ok.
 
  • #11
GregoryGr said:

Homework Statement



Water vapor condense in a raindrop with rate μ units of mass per time.
The raindrop starts with 0 velocity with initial mass $$ M_0 $$ and falls horizontally.
Falls horizontally ? How?
Did you mean it falls vertically? Or the raindrop starts to move horizontally?
 
  • #12
May be "move horizontally", perhaps without friction.
 
  • #13
Assuming the raindrop falls vertically.
Begin:
dm/dt = u --> m(t) = u * t + M0, where m(0) = M0
F = d/dt(m * v) = m * dv/dt + v * dm/dt = -m * g, assuming no air resistance.
m * dv/dm * u = -v * u - m * g --> dv/dm + (1/m) * v = -g/u --> d/dm(m * v) = -m * g/u --> m * v = -m^2 * g/(2 * u) + C -->
v(m) = -m * g/(2 * u) + C/m, v(M0) = 0 --> C = M0^2 * g/ (2 * u) -->
v(m) = -g/(2 * u) * (m - M0^2/m) -->
v(t) = -g/(2 * u) * (u * t + M0 - M0^2/(u * t + M0))
Integrating we obtain:
x(t) = -g/(2 * u^2) * ((u * t + M0)^2/2 - M0^2 * ln(u * t + M0)) + K

If x(0) = h --> K = h + g/(2 * u^2) * (M0^2/2 - M0^2 * ln(M0)) -->
x(t) = -g/(2 * u^2) * ((u * t + M0)^2/2 - M0^2/2 + M0^2 * ln(M0/(u * t + M0)) + h.
End.

For x(m) we have:
x(m) = -g/(2 * u^2) * ((m^2 - M0^2)/2 + M0^2 * ln(M0/m)) + h.
 
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  • #14
theodoros.mihos said:
So the force is constant, ok.
The problem seems fairly simple.
Assume that the raindrop falls vertically.
Begin:
dm/dt = u --> m(t) = u * t + M0, where m(0) = M0
F = d/dt(m * v) = m * dv/dt + v * dm/dt = -m * g, assuming no air resistance.
m * dv/dm * u = -v * u - m * g --> dv/dm + (1/m) * v = -g/u --> d/dm(m * v) = -m * g/u --> m * v = -m^2 * g/(2 * u) + C -->
v(m) = -m * g/(2 * u) + C/m, v(M0) = 0 --> C = M0^2 * g/ (2 * u) -->
v(m) = -g/(2 * u) * (m - M0^2/m) -->
v(t) = -g/(2 * u) * (u * t + M0 - M0^2/(u * t + M0))
Integrating we obtain:
x(t) = -g/(2 * u^2) * ((u * t + M0)^2/2 - M0^2 * ln(u * t + M0)) + K

If x(0) = h --> K = h + g/(2 * u^2) * (M0^2/2 - M0^2 * ln(M0)) -->
x(t) = -g/(2 * u^2) * ((u * t + M0)^2/2 - M0^2/2 + M0^2 * ln(M0/(u * t + M0)) + h.
End.
 
  • #15
theodoros.mihos said:
So the force is constant, ok.
No, the 'drag' that results from mass accumulation will be proportional to the speed.
Rocco's analysis looks right, but I've not checked it in detail. Too tedious without LaTeX.
 
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