I Random Variables Mutually independent

Austin Chang
Messages
38
Reaction score
0
How does lemma 18.2.2 imply the definition?
 

Attachments

  • Screen Shot 2017-04-08 at 2.50.48 PM.png
    Screen Shot 2017-04-08 at 2.50.48 PM.png
    68.1 KB · Views: 489
Physics news on Phys.org
It doesn't. A definition is not deduced, it is simply stated.
 
Hi all, I've been a roulette player for more than 10 years (although I took time off here and there) and it's only now that I'm trying to understand the physics of the game. Basically my strategy in roulette is to divide the wheel roughly into two halves (let's call them A and B). My theory is that in roulette there will invariably be variance. In other words, if A comes up 5 times in a row, B will be due to come up soon. However I have been proven wrong many times, and I have seen some...
Thread 'Detail of Diagonalization Lemma'
The following is more or less taken from page 6 of C. Smorynski's "Self-Reference and Modal Logic". (Springer, 1985) (I couldn't get raised brackets to indicate codification (Gödel numbering), so I use a box. The overline is assigning a name. The detail I would like clarification on is in the second step in the last line, where we have an m-overlined, and we substitute the expression for m. Are we saying that the name of a coded term is the same as the coded term? Thanks in advance.

Similar threads

Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
30
Views
4K
Replies
9
Views
2K
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
39
Views
4K
Back
Top