Reduction of Order - Legendre Eqn

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    Legendre Reduction
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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the reduction of order for Legendre's equation of order n, specifically for n=0,1,2,3. The solutions provided include P_0(x)=1, P_1(x)=x, P_2(x)=(3x^2-1)/2, and P_3(x)=(5x^3 -3x)/2. The second independent solution Q_n(x) is derived using the substitution Q_n(x) = v_n(x) P_n(x), leading to the expression v_n = c_n ∫ (dx/(1-x^2) P_n). The discussion highlights the tedious nature of the integrals involved, particularly for higher orders.

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  • Understanding of Legendre's equation and its solutions
  • Familiarity with reduction of order technique in differential equations
  • Knowledge of integration techniques, including partial fractions and trigonometric substitutions
  • Basic concepts of ordinary differential equations (ODEs)
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  • Study the derivation of Legendre polynomials P_n(x) for various orders
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Mathematicians, physicists, and engineering students focusing on differential equations, particularly those studying Legendre polynomials and their applications in theoretical and applied contexts.

MidnightR
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Legendre's eq of order n>=0 is

(1-x^2)y'' -2xy' +n(n+1)y = 0.

You are given the soln y = P_n(x) for n=0,1,2,3 to be P_0(x)=1 ; P_1(x)=x ; P_2(x)=(3x^2-1)/2 ; P_3(x)=(5x^3 -3x)/2. Use reduction of order to find the second independent soln's Q_n(x)

OK I've found Q_1(x) = ln(1-x)(1+x)

I'm struggling with Q_2(x), the integrals get really horrible

Is there a faster way of doing this? Am I suppose to solve all four in this way or is there a way to do it for the general case (any n)?

Cheers
 
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You'll always have to do an integral for any n. The most general result you can obtain is the following. Substitute

[tex]Q_n(x) = v_n(x) P_n(x)[/tex]

into the Legendre equation. After some algebra, you find that it reduces to

[tex]( (1-x^2) P_n v_n' )' =0,[/tex]

leading to an expression for the functions [tex]v_n(x)[/tex] as

[tex]v_n = c_n \int \frac{dx}{(1-x^2) P_n},[/tex]

where [tex]c_n[/tex] is an integration constant. All of the integrals seem like they can be done by either partial fractions or trig substitutions, but I can see how they get tedious at higher order.
 
Cheers, I guess it's good "practice". Sigh.
 

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