AxiomOfChoice
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So if you have a countably infinite set \{ x_n \} and consider also the sequence (x_n), what's the relationship between \sup \{ x_n \} and \limsup x_n?
disregardthat said:limsup will equal sup if and only there is a subsequence converging to sup. In general sup is always larger or equal to limsup. Both are only well-defined if the sequence is bounded above.
limsup is the largest value for which there is a subsequence converging to it. In other words it's the largest limit point of the sequence. I may be mistaken, feel free to correct me if I'm wrong.
AxiomOfChoice said:No, this definitely makes sense. I suppose in the case of the sequence 1, 1/2, 1/3, \ldots, we have \sup\limits_n x_n = 1 (since 1 is certainly the least upper bound), but \limsup\limits_{n\to \infty} x_n = 0 (since 0 is the only limit point of this set). Thanks!