I
think I've finally figured it out and where I was going wrong. I'd be grateful if someone can verify that my logic is now sound.I had a feeling I [wrongly] concluded that due to the invariant speed of light, if you are moving at relativist speeds to two events of equal distance apart, you would
still see them at the same time. Example - we only need one event here to show where my logic was flawed. Say for Ob A event happens 5ls away at t=0 and takes 5 secs to see it, he concludes it happened t=0. At that exact moment for Ob B, the event is still 5ls away (at least in Ob A frame, let’s not complicate this with length contraction and time dilation yet) and even though he is moving towards it, since light speed is invariant, it won't reach him any sooner. I've realized this logic is flawed - even though light always moves at the same speed in all reference frames, it actually has less distance to travel to reach ObB, so it DOES arrive sooner. I was failing to factor in that by the time the light reaches ObB it never traveled 5ls but was in fact less (if moving towards event). I know this may seem obvious to the rest of you or even dumb on my part but what was throwing me off was 2 facts I kept in mind when processing this:
- That light speed is invariant
- That in an inertial frame you are essentially stationary
So, I rationalised it as so:
- At t=0 ObB is 5ls away from event
- ObB is stationary in his frame over 5 seconds
- At t=5 he sees lightning at the end of the train and he already knows this distance is 5ls
Therefore, he concludes it happened at t=0 just like ObA.
Tbh I just think the train example is a terrible example, I came to the above conclusions because of that diagram. For example, the diagram looks like/implies the light travels 5ls from both ends to mr blue
in his frame (for same reasons I say above), when in fact it travels 3ls (approx.) for R ray and 7ls for L ray (I am aware from blue’s perspective this not the case).