@inertiaforce: Good to see you're looking at the F=ma equation now, too. I hope I can use voko's post #39 as a foundation to show the correct answer in a way that also appeals to intuition.
The key is recognizing that, when applying force to an object in a gravitational field, the force acts against gravity and also against the mass. So if a force is applied upward, it must first overcome the gravitational force before it can accelerate upward. If the force applied is great enough to overcome gravity, any force beyond that now accelerates the mass. This is where the acceleration according to mass begins to make complete sense intuitively.
Consider the original 100lb weight at 1g. Let's calculate how much force needs to be applied to accelerate that object upwards at 3ft/sec^2. We know 1g acceleration is 32ft/sec^2, and mass is 100.
a=32 (at 1g)
m=100
We need to apply a force to achieve acceleration of 35ft/sec^2 upwards to 'net' the 3 ft/sec^2 we're aiming for. That's 32ft/sec^2 to overcome gravity (F=3200), and 3ft/sec^2 more to accelerate upwards (F=300). Make sense? With mass at '100' and acceleration at '35', F=ma produces a total of F=3500.
So 3500 is the upward force required to 'net' an observable acceleration of 3 ft/sec^2 in 1g. Now let's look at applying that same force to half the mass at 2g. Our mass and acceleration now become 50 and 64 ft/sec^2, respectively. So our 'weight' will be measured at 100lb, but mass is actually 50. Let's look at what happens
a=64 (at 2g)
m=50
It will require 3200 units of force to overcome gravity. (50 x 64) The same as before - no surprise because they 'weigh' the same, right? So when we apply the same upwards force as before, 3500, the additional 300 units of force will now be acting on one-half of the mass as before. So 300 / 50 = 6, indicating our object will indeed accelerate upwards at 6ft/sec^2. Twice as rapidly as first example.
How does all of that work for you?