- #1
steven187
- 176
- 0
hello all
i just wanted to ask how would one prove that a function is riemann integrable through the definition that the lower integral has to equal the upper integral, an example on the function f(x)=x^2 would be of great help
thanxs
i just wanted to ask how would one prove that a function is riemann integrable through the definition that the lower integral has to equal the upper integral, an example on the function f(x)=x^2 would be of great help
thanxs