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How does the difference quotient undo what the Riemann sum does or vice versa. In terms of the two formulas?
I would assume that working a difference quotient backwards would be similar to working a Riemann sum forward, but in reality as the operations go this couldn't be further from the truth.
any takers?
I would assume that working a difference quotient backwards would be similar to working a Riemann sum forward, but in reality as the operations go this couldn't be further from the truth.
any takers?