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Note this is physics I

This should be the right section as this is not homework..

Ok I'm having trouble understanding the concepts of rolling without friction, kinetic energy linear and kinetic energy rotational. I have a hard time following my professor in class and usually like to go over the notes we took but I've come to a example he did that I cannot understand. I uploaded pictures of my notes to make is easier on me and you.

As you can see its pretty much a sphere rolling up a friction incline plane, had to find the distance it rolled up the plane. That was no problem, calculations for that are on the right side of the page. Did U initial = zero and K final = 0; solved with no problem.

Now on the bottom left part of the page he asks what if the inclined plane was frictionless?

I don't understand where he got that KE rotation for KE final was not zero. He also states that if there is no kinetic friction force, each point of contact does not slide.

In the example where he takes away the friction on the incline. For his total change of KE he now leaves k final but only the k rotational part and not the k linear part. Why is this, I am very confused. Also if there is no friction wouldn't the object be sliding?

Thanks in advance

This should be the right section as this is not homework..

Ok I'm having trouble understanding the concepts of rolling without friction, kinetic energy linear and kinetic energy rotational. I have a hard time following my professor in class and usually like to go over the notes we took but I've come to a example he did that I cannot understand. I uploaded pictures of my notes to make is easier on me and you.

As you can see its pretty much a sphere rolling up a friction incline plane, had to find the distance it rolled up the plane. That was no problem, calculations for that are on the right side of the page. Did U initial = zero and K final = 0; solved with no problem.

Now on the bottom left part of the page he asks what if the inclined plane was frictionless?

I don't understand where he got that KE rotation for KE final was not zero. He also states that if there is no kinetic friction force, each point of contact does not slide.

In the example where he takes away the friction on the incline. For his total change of KE he now leaves k final but only the k rotational part and not the k linear part. Why is this, I am very confused. Also if there is no friction wouldn't the object be sliding?

Thanks in advance