Rotational Dynamics, 1.68(SS.Krotov) and 1.264(Irodov)

Shridhar
Messages
2
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


I have attatched both the problems. The figure is essentially the same.

Homework Equations


1. Energy conservation
2.mgcosx - N = mv^2/r , where N is zero in limiting case.

The Attempt at a Solution


I solved the whole question and got the answer given in irodov(0.33 gR(7cosx-4))^1/2 .
But answer given in krotov is different.
So, there must be a difference in questions but i am unable to grasp it.
Thanks in advance.
 

Attachments

  • 15531967174434896316018851325402.jpg
    15531967174434896316018851325402.jpg
    79.9 KB · Views: 497
  • 15531968411257254614665202199419.jpg
    15531968411257254614665202199419.jpg
    72.8 KB · Views: 822
Physics news on Phys.org
Shridhar said:
there must be a difference in questions
The moments of inertia are different.
 
haruspex said:
The moments of inertia are different.
Well, in the detailed answer Krotov has ignored Kinetic energy due to rotational motion completely.His final equation is
mv^2/2 = mV^2/2 - mgr(1-cosx).
Anyways, moment of inertia of solid cylinder and disk are same
 

Attachments

  • 15532292191495057531914054620224.jpg
    15532292191495057531914054620224.jpg
    38.9 KB · Views: 564
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top