Fredrik, this all depends on what you consider to be included within "SR".
Bernhard & I have had many conversations in this forum where you use non-orthogonal coordinates in flat spacetime. The flatness of spacetime arguably means this
is SR. The coordinate non-orthogonality arguably means this is
not SR.
(Do a Google search for
DrGreg (Selleri OR Tanglerhini OR Reichenbach) site:physicsforums.com.)
This means abandoning Einstein's synchronisation convention and adopting one of several other possible conventions instead. Under such conditions, the two-way round-trip average speed of light (A-B-A) is still isotropic, as required by experiment, but the one-way coordinate speed of light (A-B), measured in such a non-standard coordinate system, is no longer isotropic.
The anisotropy is not a property of spacetime, but a property of the coordinate system.
Just to reiterate, any anisotropic "one-way speed of light" is always a
coordinate speed, not what you might call a "physical speed" measured by the local clocks and rulers and Einstein sync convention of an inertial observer. As you should know, in GR the
coordinate speed of light need not be
c, except for local Einstein-synced inertial observers.
bernhard.rothenstein said:
Many approaches to "special relativity in the anisotropic space) make use of the concept of round trip (two way) speed of light. Do you think that we could avoid that concept. Is it physically motivated?
Thanks
The isotropy of the local
two-way speed of light
is physically motivated: there is a wealth of experimental evidence to support it, and no credible evidence to refute it. Any theory that ignored this experimental fact would be incomplete, and any that contradicted it would be worthless. (This assumes, of course, that observers use proper local time and proper local length for measurement; you could construct theories that did not do so.)
bernhard.rothenstein said:
Thanks for your answer. Is there a physical basis for consideringt that light could propagate say forward with one of the speeds infinit>c(f)>c/2.
Yes, if you believe in aether. No, if you do not. But there's no evidence to prove the existence of aether (though none to disprove it either), and even if aether did exist, it conveniently censors itself so it can't be detected, which makes it a rather pointless concept.
(Sorry, I will be off-line for the next week and a half, and will not be able to reply for a while.)