is this correct
-(pi) + (1 - 2i)((pi)^2) = i^2
i = (-1)^(1/2)
No, this is not correct. You are saying that
[tex]\pi + (1-2 i)\pi^2=-1[/tex]
which would imply that
which is clearly not the case...
Saying pi is transcendental would have saved you all that latexing...
But I like LaTeX'ing! :)
saying only that pi is transcendental
could make suvey feel more good
with his nice effort to explain the answer.
Erm, what the heck does that mean? Perhaps I was offering a tongue in cheek way of pointing out that the answer could be done in far fewer steps, and without making a statement that needs to be checked. Algebraic expressions don't always look like they ought to; I can think of several expressions that appear to have non-zero imaginary part, yet are real.
I am still thinking about your question to me if a mathematician is going to the toilet is he also doing mathematics by this.
Until I will have the exact answer for you
you may enjoy to read this:
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