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Saying pi is transcendental

  1. Apr 14, 2004 #1
    is this correct

    -(pi) + (1 - 2i)((pi)^2) = i^2

    i = (-1)^(1/2)
    (pi)= 3.142.....

    peace
    :redface:
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Apr 14, 2004 #2
    No, this is not correct. You are saying that
    [tex]\pi + (1-2 i)\pi^2=-1[/tex]
    which would imply that
    [tex]\pi=\left(\mp\frac{1}{10}\pm\frac{i}{5}\right)\left(\mp 1+\sqrt{8i-3}\right)[/tex]
    which is clearly not the case...
     
    Last edited: Apr 14, 2004
  4. Apr 14, 2004 #3

    matt grime

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    Saying pi is transcendental would have saved you all that latexing...
     
  5. Apr 14, 2004 #4
    But I like LaTeX'ing! :)
     
  6. Apr 14, 2004 #5
    matt:

    saying only that pi is transcendental
    could make suvey feel more good
    with his nice effort to explain the answer.

    Moshek
    :smile:
     
  7. Apr 14, 2004 #6

    matt grime

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    Erm, what the heck does that mean? Perhaps I was offering a tongue in cheek way of pointing out that the answer could be done in far fewer steps, and without making a statement that needs to be checked. Algebraic expressions don't always look like they ought to; I can think of several expressions that appear to have non-zero imaginary part, yet are real.
     
  8. Apr 20, 2004 #7
    Matt:

    I am still thinking about your question to me if a mathematician is going to the toilet is he also doing mathematics by this.

    Until I will have the exact answer for you

    you may enjoy to read this:

    https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=17243

    Moshek
     
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