MisterMan
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Hi, I am having trouble understanding an example from a textbook I am reading on the Schrödinger equation. The example deals with an infinite square well in one dimension. With the following properties:
[tex]V = 0\,where -a \leq x \leq a[/tex]
[tex]V = \infty\,|x| \geq a[/tex]
Where V is the potential.
The time-independent Schrödinger equation is given by this equation:
[tex]\frac{\hbar}{2m}\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} + E\psi = 0[/tex]
where psi is:
[tex]\psi = Acos(kx) + Bsin(kx)[/tex]
where [tex]k=\sqrt{\frac{2mE}{\hbar^2}}[/tex]
and A and B are constants.
The boundary conditions in the book are said to be :
[tex]Acos(ka) + Bsin(ka) = 0[/tex]
and
[tex]Acos(ka) - Bsin(ka) = 0[/tex]
because we need to satisfy the Schrödinger equation when the potential is infinite when x is equal to plus or minus a.
The book then goes on to say:
Hence,
B = 0 and [tex]cos(ka) = 0 => k = \frac{n\pi}{2a}[/tex] n=1, 3, 5,...
or
A = 0 and [tex]sin(ka) = 0 => k = \frac{n\pi}{2a}[/tex] n=2, 4, 6,...
My question is this: Is psi equal to Aexp(ikx) in this example? In which case shouldn't the case of sin(ka) = 0 be irrelevant as A = 0? The solution to this equation is given in the book as:
[tex]\psi = \sqrt{\frac{1}{a}}cos(\frac{nx\pi}{2a})[/tex] for n odd
[tex]\psi = \sqrt{\frac{1}{a}}sin(\frac{nx\pi}{2a})[/tex] for n even
when |x| <= a and psi = 0 when |x| > a.
I hope I have made my problem clear, any help is appreciated.
Thanks
[tex]V = 0\,where -a \leq x \leq a[/tex]
[tex]V = \infty\,|x| \geq a[/tex]
Where V is the potential.
The time-independent Schrödinger equation is given by this equation:
[tex]\frac{\hbar}{2m}\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} + E\psi = 0[/tex]
where psi is:
[tex]\psi = Acos(kx) + Bsin(kx)[/tex]
where [tex]k=\sqrt{\frac{2mE}{\hbar^2}}[/tex]
and A and B are constants.
The boundary conditions in the book are said to be :
[tex]Acos(ka) + Bsin(ka) = 0[/tex]
and
[tex]Acos(ka) - Bsin(ka) = 0[/tex]
because we need to satisfy the Schrödinger equation when the potential is infinite when x is equal to plus or minus a.
The book then goes on to say:
Hence,
B = 0 and [tex]cos(ka) = 0 => k = \frac{n\pi}{2a}[/tex] n=1, 3, 5,...
or
A = 0 and [tex]sin(ka) = 0 => k = \frac{n\pi}{2a}[/tex] n=2, 4, 6,...
My question is this: Is psi equal to Aexp(ikx) in this example? In which case shouldn't the case of sin(ka) = 0 be irrelevant as A = 0? The solution to this equation is given in the book as:
[tex]\psi = \sqrt{\frac{1}{a}}cos(\frac{nx\pi}{2a})[/tex] for n odd
[tex]\psi = \sqrt{\frac{1}{a}}sin(\frac{nx\pi}{2a})[/tex] for n even
when |x| <= a and psi = 0 when |x| > a.
I hope I have made my problem clear, any help is appreciated.
Thanks
Last edited: