Show mapping is an automorphism

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that the mapping Phi(a+bi)=a-bi is an automorphism of the group of complex numbers under addition. Participants are exploring the properties of this mapping, including its injectivity, surjectivity, and preservation of addition.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the requirements for the mapping to be one-to-one and onto, questioning how to demonstrate these properties. They also explore the preservation of addition and the implications of equality between complex numbers.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants seeking clarification on specific parts of the proof. Some have expressed uncertainty about the logic used in their assumptions and the arithmetic involved. There is a focus on ensuring that the mapping is correctly shown to be onto.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the constraints of homework guidelines, which may limit the depth of exploration into the proof. There is a noted confusion regarding the representation of elements in the group and the implications of their mappings.

math_nerd
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Show that the mapping Phi(a+bi)=a-bi is an automorphism of the group of complex numbers under addition.

I have this as of now:

Let (c+di) and (a+bi) be elements in group G.

1) phi(a+bi) is function phi from G to G, by assumption. Therefore the function is a mapping.

2) 1-1: assume that phi(a+bi) = phi (c+di), so a-bi = c-di.
Then, how can I show that this somehow equals a+bi = c+di?

3) onto: phi is onto if for every element g' in G, we can find an element g in G, s.t. Phi(g)=g'. So phi(a+bi) = c-di. Where c-di is an element in G(?). With some arithmetic, I got phi(a+bi) = a-bi= c+di.

4) addition is preserved, by showing phi(a+bi+c+di) = phi(a+bi) + phi(c+di) is true.
 
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For part 2, a+bi=c+di only if the real parts are equal and the imaginary parts are also equal, yes? a,b,c and d are real. Doesn't that mean a=c and b=d?
 
So for part 2, I can say that a-bi=c-di, so a=c and b=d must be true for a-bi=c-di. This then implies a+bi=c+di is true.

Also, is rest of the proof right?
 
math_nerd said:
So for part 2, I can say that a-bi=c-di, so a=c and b=d must be true for a-bi=c-di. This then implies a+bi=c+di is true.

Also, is rest of the proof right?

The phrasing on the rest of it is pretty vague. I just responded to the only part you had a '?' on. Why don't you detail a little more exactly what your question is? Focus on one part at a time.
 
Last edited:
So I need to show that the mapping Phi(a+bi)=a-bi is an automorphism of the group of complex numbers under addition. The way I have proved it is to show that it is a mapping (we are given this piece of information), the mapping is 1-1 and onto, and the operation is preserved. Also, I assumed that g=a+bi and g'=c+di, where g,g' are some elements in the group, G. What looks vague about it?
 
math_nerd said:
So I need to show that the mapping Phi(a+bi)=a-bi is an automorphism of the group of complex numbers under addition. The way I have proved it is to show that it is a mapping (we are given this piece of information), the mapping is 1-1 and onto, and the operation is preserved. Also, I assumed that g=a+bi and g'=c+di, where g,g' are some elements in the group, G. What looks vague about it?


So I have to show group G maps to itself.
 
math_nerd said:
So I need to show that the mapping Phi(a+bi)=a-bi is an automorphism of the group of complex numbers under addition. The way I have proved it is to show that it is a mapping (we are given this piece of information), the mapping is 1-1 and onto, and the operation is preserved. Also, I assumed that g=a+bi and g'=c+di, where g,g' are some elements in the group, G. What looks vague about it?

Nothing if the parts you aren't showing are ok. Like "So phi(a+bi) = c-di. Where c-di is an element in G(?). With some arithmetic, I got phi(a+bi) = a-bi= c+di.". I'm not sure what that means and I'm not sure what part of this you are having problem with.
 
I want to know if the way I have choose g'=c-di and g=a+bi to be two elements in G is written with the correct logic?

For the part I said I did the arithmetic, I did incorrectly.
I want to prove the mapping from G to G is onto.
So I need to show that phi(a+bi)= c+di. How?
 
math_nerd said:
I want to know if the way I have choose g'=c-di and g=a+bi to be two elements in G is written with the correct logic?

For the part I said I did the arithmetic, I did incorrectly.
I want to prove the mapping from G to G is onto.
So I need to show that phi(a+bi)= c+di. How?

Pick any element of G and call it a+bi. a-bi is also in G. phi(a-bi)=a+bi. So a+bi is in the range of phi and it's onto. There's no need to introduce a 'c' and 'd'.
 
  • #10
Okay thanks!
 

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