Simple Proof of Fermat's Last Theorem and Beal's Conjecture

MrAwojobi
Messages
19
Reaction score
0
Attached is the proof.
 

Attachments

Physics news on Phys.org
I forgot to mention that n is odd and A and B are not necessarily integers in the transformation. This slight ammendments are in this new attachment.
 

Attachments

MrAwojobi said:
A simple argument shows why A^n + B^n ≠ (P+Q)^n if n is odd.

Please provide this argument. I mean, I can give proofs like this to. You simply leave out the hard part...


Obviously, if n is even, A^n + B^n = C^n collapses to the Pythagorean equation.

I do not see this. Please provide a proof...
 
I have revamped the proof again so that n is not required to be odd.
 

Attachments

MrAwojobi said:
I have revamped the proof again so that n is not required to be odd.

The statement "it should be clear that since the coefficients referred to previously are set in a particular way for each part, the only way they can equal each other is if C and B and therefore A have a common prime factor" is not proven. It is merely a restatement of Beal's conjecture.
 
ramsey2879

I have added an extra paragraph to my article and this offers more explanations to my claims.
 

Attachments

##\textbf{Exercise 10}:## I came across the following solution online: Questions: 1. When the author states in "that ring (not sure if he is referring to ##R## or ##R/\mathfrak{p}##, but I am guessing the later) ##x_n x_{n+1}=0## for all odd $n$ and ##x_{n+1}## is invertible, so that ##x_n=0##" 2. How does ##x_nx_{n+1}=0## implies that ##x_{n+1}## is invertible and ##x_n=0##. I mean if the quotient ring ##R/\mathfrak{p}## is an integral domain, and ##x_{n+1}## is invertible then...
The following are taken from the two sources, 1) from this online page and the book An Introduction to Module Theory by: Ibrahim Assem, Flavio U. Coelho. In the Abelian Categories chapter in the module theory text on page 157, right after presenting IV.2.21 Definition, the authors states "Image and coimage may or may not exist, but if they do, then they are unique up to isomorphism (because so are kernels and cokernels). Also in the reference url page above, the authors present two...
When decomposing a representation ##\rho## of a finite group ##G## into irreducible representations, we can find the number of times the representation contains a particular irrep ##\rho_0## through the character inner product $$ \langle \chi, \chi_0\rangle = \frac{1}{|G|} \sum_{g\in G} \chi(g) \chi_0(g)^*$$ where ##\chi## and ##\chi_0## are the characters of ##\rho## and ##\rho_0##, respectively. Since all group elements in the same conjugacy class have the same characters, this may be...
Back
Top