Simple time-independent non-degenerate quantum perturbation

dydxforsn
Messages
104
Reaction score
0
I'm reading through this pdf (http://www.pa.msu.edu/~mmoore/TIPT.pdf) on simple quantum perturbation theory and I'm quite confused with equations 32 through 34.

They have E_{n}^{(2)} = <n^{(0)}|V|n^{(1)}> = - \sum_{m \neq 0}{\frac{|V_{mn}|^{2}}{E_{mn}}} but I would have done E_{n}^{(2)} = <n^{(0)}|V|n^{(1)}> - <n^{(0)}|E_{n}^{(1)}|n^{(1)}> and then plugged in E_{n}^{(1)} = V_{nn} from their earlier solution for first order terms. I don't know where I would have gone form there and I certainly couldn't even take a gander at how they end up with a summation either in this equation or in equations 33 and 34. Are there steps being omitted and/or can this be explained conceptually?

I have similar complaints about equations 33 and 34, though in equation 34 I have the first right hand side they end up with, but then again I have no idea about the summation that suddenly appears in the final answer. What am I overlooking/not thinking about?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Looking at Equation (24),
<br /> \left\langle n^{(0)} \right.\left|n^{(1)}\right\rangle = -\frac{1}{2} \sum_{k=1}^{1-1}\left\langle n^{(1-k)}\right.\left| n^{(k)}\right\rangle = 0<br />
so the \left\langle n^{(0)} \right.\left|n^{(1)}\right\rangle term in what you wrote is zero.
 
dydxforsn said:
They have E_{n}^{(2)} = &lt;n^{(0)}|V|n^{(1)}&gt; = - \sum_{m \neq 0}{\frac{|V_{mn}|^{2}}{E_{mn}}}

The pdf document has a small typo in that the summation index should have m ≠ n rather than m ≠ 0

but I would have done E_{n}^{(2)} = &lt;n^{(0)}|V|n^{(1)}&gt; - &lt;n^{(0)}|E_{n}^{(1)}|n^{(1)}&gt; and then plugged in E_{n}^{(1)} = V_{nn} from their earlier solution for first order terms.

See if you can show the last term on the right is zero using equation (31).

I don't know where I would have gone form there and I certainly couldn't even take a gander at how they end up with a summation either in this equation or in equations 33 and 34. Are there steps being omitted and/or can this be explained conceptually?

Note that any vector can be expanded in the basis set ##\{|m^{(0)}>\}##. So, in particular the vector ##|n^{(1)}>## can be expanded as ##|n^{(1)}> =\displaystyle \sum\limits_{m \neq n}{c_m|m^{(0)}>}##. Equation (31) allows the sum to be restricted to m≠n.

Now use equation (30) to identify the constants ##c_m##. See what you get if you substitute this expansion of ##|n^{(1)}>## into ##E_{n}^{(2)} = <n^{(0)}|V|n^{(1)}>##
 
He skipped a couple of steps. Equations 30 and 31 are
\begin{align*}
\langle m^{(0)} | n^{(1)} \rangle &= -\frac{V_{mn}}{E_{mn}} \\
\langle n^{(0)} | n^{(1)} \rangle &= 0
\end{align*} If you expand ##\lvert n^{(1)} \rangle## in terms of the eigenstates of the unperturbed Hamiltonian, you get
$$\lvert n^{(1)} \rangle = \sum_{m} \lvert m^{(0)} \rangle\langle m^{(0)} \lvert n^{(1)} \rangle.$$ Using equations 30 and 31, you end up with
$$\lvert n^{(1)} \rangle = \sum_{m \ne n} -\frac{V_{mn}}{E_{mn}}\lvert m^{(0)} \rangle.$$ When you plug this into the first line of equation 32, you get the second line.
 
Ok, that definitely cleared everything up. Thank you for everything, I especially wouldn't have guessed that they were expanding corrections to the eigenstates in terms of unperturbed eigenstates. Wow, you'd think that would have been a part of the derivations they would have spent more than nothing on...

The nuances are beginning to make sense..
 
Hi, I had an exam and I completely messed up a problem. Especially one part which was necessary for the rest of the problem. Basically, I have a wormhole metric: $$(ds)^2 = -(dt)^2 + (dr)^2 + (r^2 + b^2)( (d\theta)^2 + sin^2 \theta (d\phi)^2 )$$ Where ##b=1## with an orbit only in the equatorial plane. We also know from the question that the orbit must satisfy this relationship: $$\varepsilon = \frac{1}{2} (\frac{dr}{d\tau})^2 + V_{eff}(r)$$ Ultimately, I was tasked to find the initial...
The value of H equals ## 10^{3}## in natural units, According to : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Natural_units, ## t \sim 10^{-21} sec = 10^{21} Hz ##, and since ## \text{GeV} \sim 10^{24} \text{Hz } ##, ## GeV \sim 10^{24} \times 10^{-21} = 10^3 ## in natural units. So is this conversion correct? Also in the above formula, can I convert H to that natural units , since it’s a constant, while keeping k in Hz ?
Back
Top