Simplifying a Math Problem with Picture Explanation | Paul-Martin

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The discussion centers on simplifying a math problem involving fractions and limits. Participants clarify that dividing by a fraction is equivalent to multiplying by its inverse, leading to a simplified expression for a given equation. One user expresses confusion over a second problem, questioning the correctness of the limit notation and suggesting a potential miscommunication regarding variables. The concept of the ratio test for infinite series is introduced, explaining convergence and divergence based on limits. Overall, the conversation emphasizes the importance of accurate notation and understanding mathematical principles in problem-solving.
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Math problem (picture) (second problem added)

Can anyone explain this simplification?

http://img379.imageshack.us/img379/1786/maproblem1bm.jpg

Kindly Paul-MArtin
 
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You probably know that dividing by a fraction is the same as multiplying it with the inverse. So that (a/b)/(c/d) = (a/b)*(d/c). Applying that here gives

\frac{{\frac{{3^{k + 1} }}{{\left( {k + 1} \right)!}}}}{{\frac{{3^k }}{{k!}}}} = \frac{{3^{k + 1} }}{{\left( {k + 1} \right)!}}\frac{{k!}}{{3^k }} = \frac{{3 \cdot 3^k \cdot k!}}{{3^k \left( {k + 1} \right) \cdot k!}} = \frac{3}{{\left( {k + 1} \right)}}
 
Very good, thank you!,

convincing myself!
K=1
1*2=(1+1)*1 ok

k=2
1*2*3=(3*1*2)

k=3
1*2*3*4=(4*1*2*3)

Now i se it's obvious stupid me :(...
 
I wonder can anyone simplifi this problem? what am i missing?

http://img55.imageshack.us/img55/1434/maproblem22pi.jpg
 
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What? That problem doesn't make any sense. Are you sure you've written it down correctly?
 
1. Your picture says lim_{x->\infty} but there is no x in the formula. Did you mean k instead of x?

2. If the limit you show equals any y, then, by definition, it is not divergent!

I think you are referring to the "ratio" test for infinite series:
If the limit lim_{k->\infty}\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}= y
and y< 1 then the infinite series \Sigma_{k=1}^{\infty}a_n
converges, if y>1 then it diverges.

The general proof of that is given in any calculus text. It basically uses y to compare the series to a geometric series.

If, eventually, \frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}&lt; y then we can write ak+1< yak< y2ak-1< ...< yka1 so that the series in dominated by the geometric series \Sigma_{k=1}^{\infty}a_1y^k which converges if y< 1.
 
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