Simplifying an Equation with Taylor Series Expansion

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The discussion focuses on simplifying an equation using Taylor series expansion, specifically for the expression X = e cos(θ) + √(R² + e² sin²(θ)). The simplification is valid because the eccentricity e is significantly smaller than the radius R, allowing the equation to be approximated as X = e cos(θ) + R + (e²/2R) sin²(θ). Participants clarify the steps of the Taylor series expansion for √(1 + x) and how to apply it correctly. Additionally, there is a request for help in simplifying another equation, leading to a discussion about the correct application of Taylor series for negative values. The conversation emphasizes the importance of careful application of mathematical principles in simplification processes.
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Homework Statement



In a paper I have found there is a simplification of an equation which I do not understand.
How did they do this? Can someone explain this step by step?

Homework Equations


The euqation is as follows:

X = e \cos\theta + \sqrt{(R^2 + e^2 \sin^2 \theta)}

X = distance
e = eccentricity
theta = angle
R = radius

Since the eccentricity is much than 1000 times smaller than the radius the above equation is simplified to:

X = e \cos\theta + R + \frac{e^2}{2R} \sin^2 \theta

The Attempt at a Solution


In the paper they say that they used the Taylor series expansion in terms of \sin^2 \theta for this simplification.
 
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The Taylor expansion being made is that of ##(1+x)^{1/2}## with ##|x| \ll 1##:
$$
\begin{align}
(R^2 + e^2 \sin^2 \theta)^{1/2} &= R \left( 1 + \frac{e^2}{R^2} \sin^2 \theta \right)^{1/2} \\
&\approx R \left( 1 + \frac{e^2}{2 R^2} \sin^2 \theta \right) \\
&= R + \frac{e^2}{2 R} \sin^2 \theta
\end{align}
$$
 
Thank you DrClaude. Can you also help me to simplify the following equation using the Taylor series:

(R^2-e^2 \sin^2 \theta)^{1/2}
 
hermano said:
Thank you DrClaude. Can you also help me to simplify the following equation using the Taylor series:

(R^2-e^2 \sin^2 \theta)^{1/2}
Follow the example DrClaude has given, except now replace every x by (-x) in the Taylor expansion:

(1+x)^n = 1 + (n)(x) + (n)(n-1)(x^2)/2! + ...
 
NascentOxygen said:
Follow the example DrClaude has given, except now replace every x by (-x) in the Taylor expansion:

(1+x)^n = 1 + (n)(x) + (n)(n-1)(x^2)/2! + ...

f(x) = (1-x)^(1/2) -> f(0)= 1
f'(x) = (1/2)(1-x)^(-1/2) -> f'(0) = 1/2

So the Tyalor expansion will become:
(1-x)^(1/2) = 1 + (1/2) (x)

and not
(1-x)^(1/2) = 1 - (1/2) (x) as when I replace x by (-x) in the Taylor expansion for (1+x)^(1/2)

Or what do I wrong?
 
hermano said:
f(x) = (1-x)^(1/2) -> f(0)= 1
f'(x) = (1/2)(1-x)^(-1/2) -> f'(0) = 1/2
There is a minus sign missing:
$$
\begin{align}
\frac{d}{dx} (1-x)^{1/2} &= \frac{1}{2} (1-x)^{-1/2} \frac{d}{dx} (1-x) \\
&= -\frac{1}{2} (1-x)^{-1/2}
\end{align}
$$
 
Thanks! That's the error I have made.
 
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