Well, that depends on the definition you use for \sin x and \cos x. From the geometric definition that you've probably seen, the proof is not trivial; This website seems to do all of it at some point or another: http://people.hofstra.edu/faculty/Stefan_Waner/trig/trigintro.html
Typically, though, the sine and cosine functions are defined either as the solutions to a DE (or a pair of coupled DEs) or as their Taylor expansions. Consider the pair of DEs
y^\prime(x) = -z(x), z^\prime(x) = y(x)
with initial conditions z(0) = 0, \ y(0) = 1. We can define \sin(x) to be the unique solution for z(x) and \cos(x) to be the unique solution for y(x). In that case, the fact that \frac{d}{dx}\sin x = \cos x is by definition!A couple of other common definitions for sine and cosine (on the reals) follow. Proving the derivative identities using either of these definitions only requires a few basic results:
1) We define \sin and \cos to be the unique solutions y_1 and y_2 to
y'' = -y[/itex]<br />
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with initial conditions y(0)=0, \ y&#039;(0) = 1 and y(0)=1, \ y&#039;(0) = 0, respectively.<br />
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<b>OR</b><br />
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<b>2)</b> For all x \in \mathbb{R}, we define<br />
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\sin x = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{x^{2n+1}(-1)^n}{(2n+1)!}<br />
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and<br />
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\cos x = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{x^{2n}(-1)^n}{(2n)!}<br />
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(you need to prove convergence for these series, but that's not difficult).Of course, starting from any of these definitions, it takes some work to prove that they're equivalent to the geometric one. <img src="https://cdn.jsdelivr.net/joypixels/assets/8.0/png/unicode/64/1f642.png" class="smilie smilie--emoji" loading="lazy" width="64" height="64" alt=":smile:" title="Smile :smile:" data-smilie="1"data-shortname=":smile:" />