1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data Show that Y(x,t) = cos(kx)exp(-iwt) is a solution to the time-dependent Schrodinger wave equation. where k is the wavenumber and w is the angular frequency 2. Relevant equations Hamiltonian of Y(x,t) = ihbar d/dt Y(x,t) 3. The attempt at a solution When I plug everything in and do the calculus, I get (hbar / 2m)*k^2 = w I've been paying around with it but for the life of me cannot figure out how the left hand side is equal to w even though the unit check suggests it could. So my question is, how can you simplify the left hand side to w (hbar / 2m)*k^2 = ?