nhrock3
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A is a simetric metrices nxn. so v\in R^n and v\neq 0
so (\lambda I -A)^2=0 for some \lambda
prove that for the same v (\lambda I -A)=0
how i tried to solve it:
i just collected data from the given.
simetric matrices is diagonizable.
B=(\lambda I -A)
we were given that B^2v=0
so B^2v \bullet v=0 (dot product is also v)
so v is orthogonal to B^2v
what to do now?
so (\lambda I -A)^2=0 for some \lambda
prove that for the same v (\lambda I -A)=0
how i tried to solve it:
i just collected data from the given.
simetric matrices is diagonizable.
B=(\lambda I -A)
we were given that B^2v=0
so B^2v \bullet v=0 (dot product is also v)
so v is orthogonal to B^2v
what to do now?
Last edited: