d_leet
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frenkie said:I don't know why there is a 2 and a 4 at the end and a -1 in front...i know that sinx=cosx and that cosx=-sinx..?
NO!
It is absolutely not true that
sin(x) = cos(x) for all x.
or
cos(x) = -sin(x) for all x.
Do you understand what the problem is with what you wrote.
However it is true that teh first derivative of sin(x) is equal to cos(x) and that the first derivative of cos(x) is equal to -sin(x).