Solve Integral of tan(x)^3: Help & Explanation Needed

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the integral of tan(x)^3, with participants exploring different methods of integration and the implications of constants in indefinite integrals.

Discussion Character

  • Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to solve the integral by separating tan(x)^2 and using the identity involving sec(x)^2, while also considering an alternative method involving sec(x). Questions arise about the validity of both approaches and the role of the integration constant.

Discussion Status

Participants acknowledge that both methods yield correct results differing only by a constant. There is a recognition that the constants do not affect definite integrals, and the discussion appears to be productive with clarifications being made.

Contextual Notes

There is an emphasis on the importance of the integration constant in indefinite integrals, and participants are considering the implications of this in the context of definite integrals.

tshaw101
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I am having an issue with this problem.

[tex]\int tan(x)^3:[/tex]

You separate a tan(x)^2, and use the identity 1+tan(x)^2 = sec(x)^2

You then end up with [tex]\int tan(x) sec(x)^2 dx[/tex] + [tex]\int tan(x) dx[/tex]

[tex]\int tan(x) dx = ln absval(sec(x))[/tex]

[tex]\int tan(x) sec(x)^2 dx[/tex]

Here, the book says to solve the problem this way:

set u = tan(x) du = sec(x)^2dx

so [tex]\int u du = 1/2 u ^2 = 1/2 tan(x)^2[/tex]

Why can't you solve this problem this way instead?

[tex]\int (tan(x) sec(x)) sec(x) dx[/tex]

set u = sec(x), du = (tan(x) sec(x)) dx

so [tex]\int u du = 1/2 u ^2 = 1/2 sec(x)^2[/tex]

I think I must be missing something...any help you could give me would be greatly appreciated.
 
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You can solve it that way. What you are missing is the +C. An indefinite integral always has an indefinite integration constant. (1/2)*tan(x)^2+C and (1/2)*sec(x)^2+D are the same thing. tan^2 and sec^2 differ by a constant. Only the C and D are different constants, right?
 
you arent doing anything wrong. both answers are correct. they just differ by a constant. Remember

sec(x)^2 - tan(x)^2 = 1
 
Dick said:
You can solve it that way. What you are missing is the +C. An indefinite integral always has an indefinite integration constant. (1/2)*tan(x)^2+C and (1/2)*sec(x)^2+D are the same thing. tan^2 and sec^2 differ by a constant. Only the C and D are different constants, right?

Thanks for replying so quick.

If it is a definite integral don't the constants cancel out?
 
Yes, that's the point. (1/2)tan(x)^2+C and (1/2)sec(x)^2+C both differentiate to the same thing. They are both antiderivatives of tan(x)*sec(x)^2. If you try to do a definite integral, you don't care what which form you use. You get the same thing.
 
Dick said:
Yes, that's the point. (1/2)tan(x)^2+C and (1/2)sec(x)^2+C both differentiate to the same thing. They are both antiderivatives of tan(x)*sec(x)^2. If you try to do a definite integral, you don't care what which form you use. You get the same thing.

I see what you are saying, this makes sense to me now...thanks a lot for getting back to me so quick, I really appreciate it.
 

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